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AIIMS PREVIOUS YEARS CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS

CHAPTER-1: Basic Concepts of Chemistry

The weight of a single atom of oxygen is : [1997]
(a) 1.057 × 1023 g (b) 3.556 × 1023 g
(c) 2.656 × 10-23 g (d) 4.538 × 10-23 g

Volume of a gas at NTP is 1.12 x10-7 cc. The number of molecule in it is [1998]

(a) 3.01 x 1012 (b) 3.01 x 1018 (c) 3.01 x 1024 (d) 3.01 x 1030

The oxide of an element contains 67.67% oxygen and the vapour density of its volatile chloride is 79. Equivalent weight of the element is:1998

(a) 2.46 (b) 3.82 (c) 4.36 (d) 4.96

60 gm of an organic compound on analysis is found to have C = 24 g, H = 4 g and O = 32 g. The empirical formula of compound is: [1998] 

(a) CH2O (b) CHO (c) C2H2O (d) C2H2O2 

The molar concentration of 20 g of NaOH present in 5 litre of solution is :1998

(a) 0.1 moles/litre (b) 0.2 moles/litre (c) 1.0 moles/litre (d) 2.0 moles/litre

The normality of solution obtained by mixing 10 ml of N/5 HCI and 30 ml of N/10 HCl is : [1999]

(a) N/15 (b) N/5 (c) N/7.5 (d) N/8

The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O . Its molecular weight is 180. The molecular formula of compound is : 1999

(a) C4HO4 (b) C3H6O3 (c) C6H12O6 (d) C5H10O5

0.4 moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of  CaCl2 were dissolved in water to have 500 mL of solution, the molarity of Cl ion is: [2000] 

(a) 0.8 M (b) 1.6 M (c) 1.2 M (d) 10.0 M 

1021  molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO2. The moles of CO2 left are : [2001] 

(a) 2.88 x 10-3 (b) 28.8 x 10-3 (c) 288 x 10-3 (d) 28.8 x 103

The weight of NaCl decomposed by 4.9g of H2SO4, if 6 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and 1.825 g of HCl, were produced in the reaction is:[2001]

(a) 6.921 g (b) 4.65 g (c) 2.925 g (d) 1.4 g 

Temperature does not affect : 1997,2001

Molality (b) Formality (c) Molarity (d) Normality

The molarity of H2SO4 solution, which has a density 1.84 g/cc. at 35° C and contains 98% by weight, is : [2001] 

 (a) 1.84 M (b) 18.4 M (c) 20.6 M (d) 24.5 M

The normality of orthophosphoric acid having purity of 70 % by weight and specific gravity 1.54 is : 2001

(a) 11 N (b) 22 N (c) 33 N (d) 44 N

The weight of one molecule of a compound of molecular formula C60H122 is [2002]

(a) 1.2 × 10–20 g (b) 5.025 × 1023 g (c) 1.4 × 10–21 g (d) 6.023 × 10–20 g 

During electrolysis of water the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen liberated, under same conditions will be[2008]

(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 1.12 dm3 (c) 4.48 dm3 (d) 0.56 dm3

Calculate the millimoles of SeO32– in solution on the basis of following data : [2009] 

70 ml of  M/60  solution of KBrO3 was added to SeO32– solution. The bromine evolved was removed by boiling and excess of KBrO3 was back titrated with 12.5 mL of  M/25 solution of NaAsO2. The reactions are given below.

I. SeO32- + BrO3 + H+ → SeO42- + Br2 + H2O

II. BrO3  + AsO2 +H2O → Br +AsO43- +H+

(a) 1.6 × 10–3 (b) 1.25 (c) 2.5 × 10–3 (d) None of these 

The reaction of calcium with water is represented by the equation Ca + 2H2O→ Ca(OH)2 + H2 .What volume of H2 at STP would be liberated when 8 gm of calcium completely reacts with water? [2010]

(a) 0.2 cm3 (b) 0.4 cm3 (c) 2240 cm3 (d) 4480 cm3 

A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L solution. The molarity of NaOH in the solution is(Given that molar mass of NaOH = 40.0 g mol–1) 2010

0.2450 M (b) 0.6125 M (c) 0.9800 M (d) 1.6326 M

Which of the following pairs of solutions are expected to be isotonic, temperature being the same? [2011]

(a) 0.1 M glucose and 0.1M C6H5N+H3Cl 

(b) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl2 

(c) 0.1 M Na2SO4 and 0.1 M KNO3

 (d) 0.1 M BaCl2 and 0.075 M FeCl3 

For preparing 0.1 N solution of a compound from its impure sample of which the percentage purity is known, the weight of the substance required will be 2012

(a) less than the theoretical weight (b) more than the theoretical weight (c) same as the theoretical weight (d) none of these

In a hydrocarbon, mass ratio of hydrogen and carbon is 1:3, the empirical formula of hydrocarbon is [2012]

(a) CH4 (b) CH2 (c) C2 H (d) CH3

The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N2O4 is 27.6. Mole fraction of  NO2 in the mixture is [2012] 

(a) 0.8 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 

An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml of this solution is :2013

(a) 20 ml (b) 40 ml (c) 10 ml (d) 4 ml

KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation: [2013] 

2MnO4 +5C2O4 +16H+ → 2Mn ++ 10 CO2 +8H2O

Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to: 

(a) 20 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4  (b) 50 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4 

(c) 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4  (d) 20 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 

Calculate the normality of 10 volume H2O2 ? [2013] 

 (a) 1.7 N (b) 12 N(c) 30.3 N (d) 0.0303 N

Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ? [2014] 

(a) 44 g CO2 (b) 48 g O3 (c) 8 g H2 (d) 64 g SO2 

Sulphur forms the chlorides S2Cl2 and SCl2. The equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is [2015]

 (a) 8 g/mol (b) 16 g/mol (c) 64.8 g/mol (d) 32 g/mol 

Arrange the following in the order of increasing mass (atomic mass: O = 16, Cu = 63, N = 14) I. one atom of oxygen II. one atom of nitrogen III. 1 × 10–10 mole of oxygen IV. 1 × 10–10 mole of copper [2016] 

(a) II < I < III < IV (b) I < II < III < IV (c) III < II < IV < I (d) IV < II < III < I

Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL 10N HNO3 to get 0.1 N HNO3 is : [2017] 

(a) 1000 mL (b) 990 mL (c) 1010 mL (d) 10 mL

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

Assertion : Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed.

Reason : Under similar condition of temperature and pressure, equal volume of gases does not contain equal number of atoms. [2002]

Assertion :Equivalent weight of a base = (Molecular/ weight Acidity)
Reason : Acidity is the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the base. [2008]

Assertion :One molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180g of glucose in 1 kg water.

Reason : Solution containing one mole of solute in 1000 g of solvent is called one molal solution. [2008]

Directions : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Assertion : The normality of 0.3 M aqueous solution of H3PO3 is equal to 0.6 N. 

Reason : Equivalent weight of H3PO3 = (Molecular weight of H PO3 /3) [2011, 13]

Assertion : Equal moles of different substances contain same number of constituent particles. [2017]

Reason : Equal weights of different substances contain the same number of constituent particles.

CHAPTER-2: Structure of Atom

The configuration 1s2, 2s22p5, 3s1 shows :
(a) excited state of O2 [1997]
(b) excited state of neon atom
(c) excited state of fluorine atom
(d) ground state of fluorine atom

The total number of orbitals in a shell with principal quantum number ‘n’ is : [1997]

(a)  n2 (b) n + 1 (b) 2n (d)  2n2 

Positron is : 1997

(a) electron with positive charge (b) a nucleus with one neutron and one proton (c) a nucleus with two protons (d) a helium nucleus

The wavelength of visible light is : 1998

(a) 2000 Å – 3700 Å (b) 7800 Å – 8900 Å (c) 3800 Å – 7600 Å (d) None of these

The wavelength of a 150 g rubber ball moving with a velocity of 50 ms–1 is : [1998] 

(a) 3.43 x 10-33 cm (b) 5.86 x 10-33 cm (c) 7.77 x 10-33 cm (d) 8.83 x 10-33 cm

If e = 1.60206 x 10-19 μ C,  e/m = 1.75875 1011 Ckg-1 then the mass of electron is [1999]

(a) 7.5678 × 10–31 kg (b) 9.1091 × 10–31 kg (c) 11.2531 × 10–31 kg (d) 13.0513 × 10–31 kg 

The energy of electron in first energy level is 21.79 10 x 10-12  erg per atom. The energy of electron in second energy level is : [1999]

(a) 54.47 x 10-12 erg atom-1

(b) 5.447 x 10-12 erg atom-1

(c) 0.5447 x 10-12 erg atom-1

(d) 0.055447 x 10-12 erg atom-1

Deuterium nucleus contains: [2000]
(a) 1 proton, 1 electron
(b) 1 proton, 1 neutron
(c) 2 protons, 1 electron
(d) 1 proton, 2 electrons

The outermost configuration of most electronegative element is: [2000]

(a)  ns2np5 (b)  ns2np6 (c) ns2np4 (d) ns2np3 

Bohr’s theory is not applicable to: [2000]

(a) H (b) He+ (c) Li2+ (d) H+ 

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is : [K.E. = 13.6 eV ; 1eV = 1.602 x 10-19 J] [2000]

 (a) 33.28 nm (b) 3.328 nm (c) 0.3328 nm (d) 0.0332 nm 

The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass 10–6 kg moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1 is : [2001]

 (a) 6.63 x 10-7 m (b) 6.63 x 10-16 m (c) 6.63 x 10-21 m (d) 6.63 x 10-29 m

The velocity of electron in second shell of hydrogen atom is : [2001]

(a) 10.94 x 106 ms-1 (b) 18.88 x 106 ms-1 (c) 1.888 x 106 ms-1 (d) 1.094 x 106 ms-1

Which of the following element is represented by electronic configuration 1s22s22p1x2p1y2p1z[2001] 

(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen (c) fluorine (d) sulphur 

Quantum numbers of an atom can be defined on the basis of [2002]

(a) Hund’s rule (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle (c) Aufbau’s principle (d) Heisenberg’s uncertainity principle 

Spectrum of Li2+ is similar to that of [2002]

 (a) H (b) Be (c) He (d) Ne 

Azimuthal quantum number defines [2002]

(a) e/m ratio of electron (b) angular momentum of electron (c) spin of electron (d) magnetic momentum of electron

  The quantum number ‘m’ of a free gaseous atom is associated with : [2003]

(a) the effective volume of the orbital (b) the shape of the orbital (c) the spatial orientation of the orbital (d) the energy of the orbital in the absence of a magnetic field

For principle quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is : [2004]

 (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 9 

The isoelectronic pair is : [2005]

(a) Cl2O3  and ICl2 (b) ICl2 and ClO2 (c) IF2+ and I3 (d) ClO2  and ClF2+

The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is [2005]

(a) 0.0 (b) 52.9 (c) 26.5 (d) 105.8

The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is : [2006]

(a) 6.626 x10-34 m (b) 13.20 x 10-34 m

(c) 10.38 x 10-21 m (d) 6.626 x10-34 Å

The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms–1 respectively. The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties  ΔxA/Δxin their positions ? [2008]

(a) 2 (b) 0.25 (c) 4 (d) 1

Find the frequency of light that corresponds to photons of energy 5.0 × 10–5 erg [2010]

 (a) 7.5 × 10–21 sec–1 (b) 7.5 × 10–21 sec (c) 7.5 × 1021 sec–1 (d) 7.5 × 1021 sec 

Ratio of energy of photon of wavelength 3000 Å and 6000Å is [2012]

 (a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3 

Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is allowed? [2013]

Among the following groupings which represents the collection of isoelectronic species? [2013]

The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n and  l (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest, as    [2014] 

(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)

In hydrogen atomic spectrum, a series limit is found at 12186.3 cm–1. Then it belong to [2014]

 (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series

Based on equation E = -2.178 x 10-18 J (Z2/n2) certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct

(a) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

(b) Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

(c) For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which mean that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

(d) The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy or electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus

AIIMS PREVIOUS YEARS PHYSICS QUESTIONS & SOLUTIONS

CHAPTER-1:Units and Measurements

The dimensions of Planck’s constant are [1997]
(a) [ML-3T-1] (b) [ML-2T-1] (c)[M0L-1T-3] (d) [ML2T-1]

CHAPTER-2: Motion in a Straight Line

If a car at rest accelerated uniformly to a speed of 144 km/hour in 20 second it covers a distance :[1997]
(a) 400 m (b) 1440 m
(c) 2880 m (d) 25 m

A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 m high. After the first ball has fallen for 2 second, a second ball is thrown straight down after it, what must be the initial velocity of the second ball be, so that both the balls hit the surface of water at the same time? [1997]
(a) 26.1 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s
(c) 55.5 m/s (d) 49 m/s

A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then the maximum height attained by it will be :(g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10 m (b) 20 m [1999]
(c) 15 m (d) 25 m

A body is released from the top of the tower H metre high. It takes t second to reach the ground. Where is the body after t/2 second of release ?
(a) at 3H/4 metre from the ground [2000]
(b) at H/2 metre from the ground
(c) at H/6 metre from the ground
(d) at H/4 metre from the ground

A body starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After two seconds another body B starts from rest with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal
distances in fifth second after the starts of A, the ratio a1 : a2 will be equal to : [2001]
(a) 9 : 5 (b) 5 : 7
(c) 5 : 9 (d) 7 : 9

Three different objects m1, m2 and m3 are allowed to fall from rest and from the same point O along three different frictionless paths. The
speeds of the three objects, on reaching the ground, will be in the ratio of [2002]
(a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1
(c) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3 (d) 1/m1 : 1/m2 : 1/m3

A body starting from rest moves along straight line with a constant acceleration. The variation of speed (v) with distance (s) is represented by
the graph :[2003]

A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plots represents the speed-time graph of the ball during its flight if the air resistance is not ignored?[2003]

Which of the following velocity-time graphs shows a realistic situation for a body in motion? [2004, 2007]

Two spheres of same size one of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped simultaneously from the top of Qutab Minar(height = 72m).
When they are 1m above the ground, the two spheres have the same: [2006]
(a) momentum (b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy (d) acceleration

AIIMS PREVIOUS YEARS ZOOLOGY Questions & Solutions

CHAPTER-23: Reproduction in Organisms

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the following is the correct example of the type mentioned? [2005]
(a) Morphallaxis – Regeneration of two transversely cut equal pieces of a Hydra into two small Hydras.
(b) Epimorphosis – Replacement of old and dead erythrocytes by the new ones.
(c) Morphallaxis – Healing up of a wound in the skin.
(d) Epimorphosis – Regeneration of crushed and filtered out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarians. from chapter 25

Which form of reproduction is correctly matched? [2007]
(a) Euglena → transverse binary fission
(b) Paramecium → longitudinal binary fission
(c) Amoeba → multiple fission
(d) Plasmodium → binary fission

Which reproductive adaptation is characteristic of most terrestrial vertebrates but not of most aquatic vertebrates? [2009]
(a) External fertilization
(b) Internal fertilization
(c) Motile gametes
(d) External development

Identify the events (A, B, D and E) in life of general reproduction-[2015]

(a) A-Gamete transfer, B-Gametogeneis, D-Zygote formation, E-Embryogenesis
(b) A-Gametogeneis, B-Gamete transfer, D-Zygote formation, E-Embryogenesis
(c) A-Gametogeneis, B-Zygote formation, D-Gamete transfer, E-Embryogenesis
(d) A-Gametogeneis, B-Gamete transfer, D-Embryogenesis, E-Zygote formation.

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(i) Bamboo species flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years and produce large number of fruits and die.
(ii) In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by morphological and physiological changes prior to active reproductive behaviour.
(iii) The reproductive phase is of same duration in all organisms.
(iv) Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the birth of an individual till it reaches reproductive maturity. [2016]
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)

In a practical test, a student has to identify the organisms in which syngamy does not occur. In those organisms the female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilization. This phenomenon is called “X”. Identify the organisms and the phenomenon
“X”. [2017]
(a) Frog, Parthenogenesis
(b) Lizards, Gametogenesis
(c) Rotifers, Embryogenesis
(d) Honeybee, Parthenogenesis

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Q. 1) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of
following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Leaves of Bryophyllum, Begonia help in vegetative multiplication.
Reason : Leaves of these plants possess adventitious buds. [2014]

CHAPTER-24: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Asexual reproduction is called as [1997]
(a) apomixis (b) fragmentation
(c) self fertilization (d) cross fertilization

Pollination by snail and slug is called as [1998]
(a) entomophilous
(b) malacophilous
(c) ornithophilous
(d) chiropterophilous

In angiosperm, the endosperm is [1998]
(a) diploid (b) triploid
(c) haploid (d) polyploid

Female gametophyte of angiosperm is [1999]
(a) 7 celled (b) 8 celled
(c) 11 celled (d) 5 celled

Anemophilous flowers have [1999]
(a) sessile stigma
(b) small, smooth stigma
(c) coloured and scented flowers
(d) large feathery stigma

Growth of pollen tube towards embryo is [2000]
(a) geotropism (b) chemotaxis
(c) phototaxis (d) thigmotaxis

Which of the following statement is true?[2000]
(a) Spores are gametes
(b) Spores and gametes are diploid
(c) Gametes are always haploid
(d) Spores are always diploid

Which part of embryo comes out first during seed germination ? [2001]
(a) Radicle (b) Plumule
(c) Hypocotyl (d) Epicotyl

Xenia refers to [2002]
(a) effect of pollen on endosperm
(b) effect of pollen on stems
(c) effect of pollen on taste of fruits
(d) effect of pollen on vascular tissue

Ploidy of ovum of angiosperms is [2002]
(a) haploid (b) diploid
(c) triploid (d) polyploid

Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine is composed of [2003]
(a) cutin (b) suberin
(c) sporopollenin (d) callose

The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac
(a) between the egg cell and synergid[2004]
(b) by directly penetrating the egg
(c) between one synergid and antipodal cell
(d) by knocking off the antipodal cells

Double fertilization involves [2005]
(a) fertilization of egg by two male gametes
(b) fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo sac by two sperms brought by one pollen tube
(c) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by different pollen tubes
(d) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by the same pollen tube

In which one of the following combinations (a – d) the number of chromosomes of the present day hexaploid wheat is correctly represented?
[2006]

Apomixis is [2007]
(a) formation of seeds by fusion of gametes.
(b) formation of seeds without syngamy and meiosis.
(c) formation of seeds with syngamy but no meiosis.
(d) None of the above

The plant part which consists of two generations one within the other, is [2008]
(a) germinated pollen grain
(b) embryo
(c) unfertilized ovule
(d) seed

Chasmogamy refers to the condition where [2012]
(a) Flowers remains closed
(b) Flowers are absent
(c) Flowers are open
(d) Flower are gamopetalous

What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis? [2013]
(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase
(c) Both occur round the year
(d) Both produces progeny identical to the parent

Emasculation is not required when flowers are [2013]
(a) bisexual (b) intersexual
(c) unisexual (d) either (a) or (b)

Geitonogamy involves:
(a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant.
(b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower.
(c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population.
(d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population. [2014]

Which of the following statement is correct? [2016]
(a) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids.
(b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes.
(c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials.
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature as well as strong acids and alkalis.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs.1-3) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : If pollen mother cells has 42 chromosomes, the pollen has only 21 chromosomes.
Reason : Pollens are formed after meiosis in pollen mother cell. [1997]

2-Assertion: The megaspore mother cell divide mitotically to produce four spores.
Reason: Megaspore mother cells are diploid and megaspore is haploid. [2002]

3-Assertion : Insects visit flower to gather honey.
Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging other parts of the plant. [2004]

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells. [2009]
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.

2-Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating agents.
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex organs. [2012]

3-Assertion : Double fertilization is characteristic feature of angiospersms.
Reason : Double fertilization involves two fusions. [2016]

4-Assertion : Endosperm is a nutritive tissue and it is triploid.
Reason: Endosperm is formed by fusion of secondary nucleus to second male gamete. It is used by developing embryo. [1998, 2017]

CHAPTER-25: Human Reproduction

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Prostate gland secretion helps in formation of
(a) larva (b) semen [1997]
(b) cocoon (c) none of these

Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called as [1998]
(a) chorion (b) corona radiata
(c) zona pellucida (d) none of these

The extra-embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from [1999]
(a) trophoblast (b) follicle cells
(c) inner cell mass (d) formative cells

Acrosome of sperm is formed by [1999]
(a) nucleus (b) golgi bodies
(c) lysosome (d) E. R.

Cumulus covers [1999]
(a) ovary (b) ovum
(c) embryo (d) sperm

Cessation of menstrual cycle in women is called
(a) menopause (b) lactation [2001]
(c) ovulation (d) parturition

Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are [2003]
(a) found in human ovaries
(b) a source of hormones
(c) characterized by a yellow colour
(d) contributory in maintaining pregnancy

The early human embryo distinctly possesses [2003]
(a) gills
(b) gill slits
(c) external ear (pinna)
(d) eyebrows

The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is [2003]
(a) follicular phase (b) ovulatory phase
(c) luteal phase (d) menstruation

Which one of the following statements with regard to embryonic development in humans is correct? [2003]
(a) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm.
(b) In the second cleavage division, one of the two blastomeres usually divides a little sooner than the second.
(c) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant blastomeres become larger and larger.
(d) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells called morula.

Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with [2004]
(a) no spleen
(b) hare-lip
(c) extra fingers and toes
(d) under developed limbs

A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show [2005]
(a) centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(b) centriole and mitochondria.
(c) mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(d) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules only

Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle? [2005]
(a) Release of egg : 5th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5-10 days
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation : 11-18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level : 1-15 days

Which of the following is true regarding sperm? [2007]
(a) Fertilizin: For penetrating egg membrane
(b) Hyalurodinase: For penetrating egg membrane
(c) Acrosin: Dissolves corona radiata
(d) Capacitation: Takes place in penis

Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are [2008]
(a) found in human ovaries
(b) a source of hormones
(c) characterized by a yellow colour
(d) contributory in maintaining pregnancy

gametes produced from one male primary sex cell to the number of gametes produced from one female primary sex cell? [2009]
(a) 1:3 (b) 1:4
(c) 3:1 (d) 4:1

Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in[2010]
(a) brain (b) ovary
(c) pancreas (d) spleen

Cells of leydig are found in [1997, 2011]
(a) Testes of frog (b) Testes of rabbit
(c) Kidney of frog (d) Kidney of rabbit

Meroblastic cleavage refers to which type of division of egg [2001, 2011]
(a) Complete (b) Spiral
(c) Incomplete (d) Horizontal

Which of the following organ is differentiated first during development? [2012]
(a) Heart (b) Skin
(c) Brain (d) Neural tube

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is: [2013]
(a) spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocytesperms
(b) spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatidsperms
(c) spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatidsperms
(d) spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogoniasperms

All of the following statements concerning pregnancy are accurate EXCEPT [2015]
(a) the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin in the urine forms the basis for pregnancy tests.
(b) the cyclic release of pituitary gonadotropins and ovarian steroids is
continued.
(c) the mammary gland tissue of the pregnant woman is stimulated to develop by placental hormones.
(d) the corpus luteum of pregnancy maintains the uterus until the placenta is well established.

The following graph of relative concentrations of the four hormones present in the blood plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones. [2015]

Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 – 300 million sperms, of which for normal fertility _ % sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ____% must show energetic motility. [2016]
(a) 40, 60 (b) 50, 50
(c) 60, 40 (d) 30, 70

The given figure shows the human foetus within the uterus with few structures marked as A, B, C and D.

Which of the following options shows the correct labeling? [2016]
(a) A → Umbilical cord with its veins, B → Chorionic villi, C → Antrum, D → Plug of mucus in cervix
(b) A → Umbilical cord with its vessels, B → Fimbriae, C → Oocyte, D → Plug of mucus in vagina
(c) A → Umbilical cord with its vessels, B → Placental villi, C → Yolk sac, D → Plug of mucus in cervix
(d) A → Umbilical cord with its veins, B → Placental villi, C → Trophoblast,
D → Plug of mucus in vagina [2016]

The figure given below shows the sectional view of ovary. Select the option which gives correct identification of marked structure (A to D) and its feature. [2017]

(a) A: Primary follicle, it is also called gamete mother cell.
(b) B: Corpus luteum, it cannot be formed and added after birth.
(c) C: Grafian follicle, mature follicle which ruptures to release secondary oocyte.
(d) D: Tertiary follicle, a large number of this follicle degenerates during the phase from birth to puberty.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : During fertilization only head of spermatozoa enters egg.
Reason : If several spermatozoa hit the egg at same time, all can enter the egg. [1997]

2-Assertion : In morula stage, cells divide without increase in size.
Reason : Zona pellucida remains undivided till cleavage is complete. [1997]

3-Assertion : Death is one of the important regulatory process on earth.
Reason : It avoids over-crowding caused by continuous reproduction. [2002]

4-Assertion : Old age is not an illness. It is a continuation of life with decreasing capacity for adaptation.
Reason : Cessation of mitosis is a normal genetically programmed event. [2003]

5-Assertion : Senescence is the time when age associated defects are manifested. [2005]
Reason : Certain genes may be undergoing sequential switching on and off during one’s life.

Directions for (Qs. 32-38) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates in the absence of fertilization.[2009]
Reason : Progesterone level decreases.

2-Assertion : Clitoris is not remnant of penis in females. [2009]
Reason : It also has high blood supply and erectile tissue.

3-Assertion : Mammalian ova produces hyaluronidase. [2009]
Reason : The eggs of mammal are microlecithal and telolecithal.

4-Assertion : Head of sperm consists of acrosome and mitochondria.
Reason : Acrosome contains spiral row of mitochondria

5-Assertion : Females have less stature than males after puberty.
Reason : This happens because of the presence of hCG in the blood of females. [2014]

6-Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments present in testis.
Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of fertilization. [2016]

7-Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial spaces.
Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells. [2016, 2017]

CHAPTER-26:Reproductive Health

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

GIFT is [2009]
(a) transfer of a sperm in fallopian tube of a female with the help of injections.
(b) transfer of a zygote fertilized in vitro in the fallopian tube of female incapable to conceive.
(c) transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into another females fallopian tube who can’t produce an ovum but can provide a good environment for further development.
(d) embryo is developed in vitro and then transferred into female’s tract.

What is the function of copper-T ?
(a) Checks mutation [2012]
(b) Stops fertilization
(c) Stops zygote formation
(d) Stops oblituation of blastocoel

Progestasert and LNG-20 are [2013]
(a) Implants
(b) Copper releasing IUDs
(c) Non-medicated IUDs
(d) Hormone releasing IUDs

What is the figure given below showing in particular ?

(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy

Match Column -I with Column – II. [2015]
Column I ________Column II
Method ………………Mode of Action
A. The pill…………… I. Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B. Condom …………..II. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy………. III. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T ………….IV. Semen contains no sperms
(a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV

Select the correct match of the techniques given in column I with its feature given in column II.

(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 7-9) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppresses sperm-motility.
Reason : Hormones released by them affect sperm motility. [2009]

2-Assertion : HIV infection can be avoided by use of condoms.
Reason : Condoms secrete anti-viral interferons. [2014]

3-Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in human females.
Reason : Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina upwards into fallopian tubes. [2011, 2014]

CHAPTER-27: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The formation of multivalents at meiosis in diploid organism is due to [1998]
(a) monosomy
(b) deletion
(c) inversion
(d) reciprocal translocation

If a homozygous tall plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf plant, the offsprings will be[1999]
(a) all tall plants (b) all dwarf plants
(c) half tall plants (d) half dwarf plants

XO chromosomal abnormality in humans causes [1999]
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Patau’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Polygenic genes show [2000]
(a) similar genotype
(b) different phenotype
(c) different karyotype
(d) different genotype

Which disease has XXY chromosome constitution?
(a) Down’s syndrome [2000]
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Okazaki syndrome

Barr-body in mammals represents [2001]
(a) One of the two X chromosomes in somatic cells of females.
(b) All heterochromatin of male & female cells.
(c) Y chromosomes of male.
(d) All heterochromatin of female cells

Discontinuous variations are [2001]
(a) essential features
(b) acquired characters
(c) non-essential changes
(d) mutations

Mirabilis jalapa shows [2001]
(a) codominance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) dominance
(d) complementary genes

Frame shift mutation occurs when [2002]
(a) base is added
(b) base is deleted
(c) base is added or deleted
(d) none of the above

Pure line breed refers to [2002]
(a) homozygosity (b) heterozygosity
(c) linkage (d) both b & c

If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white flowered plant, the offsprings would be [2002]
(a) all red flowered
(b) half red flowered
(c) half white flowered
(d) all white flowered

Genes of which one of the following is present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans? [2003]
(a) Baldness
(b) Red-green colour blindness
(c) Facial hair/moustaches in males
(d) Night blindness

Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached earlobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares
represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct? [2004]

(a) The parents are homozygous recessive.
(b) The trait is Y-linked.
(c) The parents are homozygous dominant.
(d) The parents are heterozygous

Given below is a representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation. What is the kind of mutation represented?

(a) deletion
(b) duplication
(c) inversion
(d) reciprocal translocation

How many different types of gametes can be formed by F1 progeny, resulting from the following cross Tt × Rr? [2004]
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 27 (d) 64

Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) × aabbcc (light colour), in F2 generation
what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent? [2005]
(a) Half (b) Less than 5 percent
(c) One third (d) None of these

Primary source of allelic variation is [2005]
(a) independent assortment
(b) recombination
(c) mutation
(d) polyploidy

Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans.

The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is [2005]
(a) dominant X-linked
(b) recessive X-linked
(c) dominant Y-linked
(d) recessive Y-linked

The “Cri-du-Chat” syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving [2005]
(a) deletion (b) duplication
(c) inversion (d) translocation

Given below is a highly simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype. [2006]

The genes a and b could be of
(a) colour blindness and body height
(b) attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group
(c) haemophilia and red-green colour blindness
(d) phenylketonuria and haemophilia

In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf-life. The large variation is on account of
[2006]
(a) species diversity
(b) induced mutations
(c) genetic diversity
(d) hybridization

Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance? [2006]
(a) Human height and skin colour.
(b) ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa.
(c) Hair pigment of mouse and tonque rolling in humans.
(d) Human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia

Gene which suppresses other gene’s activity but does not lie on the same locus is called as [2007]
(a) epistatic (b) supplementary
(c) hypostatic (d) codominant

XO-chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes [2007]
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) none of the above

A normal woman whose father was colour blind, is married to a normal man. The sons would be [2008]
(a) 75% colour blind
(b) 50% colour blind
(c) all normal
(d) all colour blind

Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called [2008]
(a) reciprocal cross (b) test cross
(c) dihybrid cross (d) back cross

Bird females have chromosome arrangement as [2009]
(a) XY (b) XO
(c) WZ (d) WW

Gene pool is referred to [2009]
(a) the genetic drift caused in a population
(b) aggregate of all genes and their alleles in a population.
(c) deletion of non essential genes.
(d) induce cell division

Mother and father both have blood group ‘A’. They have two children one with blood group ‘O’ and second one with blood group ‘A’.
They have [2009]
(a) mother has homozygotic gene father has heterozygote I’A IA.
(b) both are homozygotic ( IA IA ).
(c) mother is heterozygotic ( IAi ) and father is homozygotic ( IA IA ).
(d) both are heterozygotic (IAi).

When one gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called [2010]
(a) apomixis (b) pleiotropy
(c) polyploidy (d) polyteny

Three children in a family have blood types O, AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes of their parents? [2013]
(a) IAi and IBi (b) I AIB and i i
(c) IBIB and IAIA (d) IAIA and IBi

If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child? [2014]
(a) 50% (b) 25%
(c) 100% (d) no chance

In Huntington’s disease, the unaffected persons are homozygous for normal allele h. The following is erroneous because [2015]

(a) it shows both male and female affected by Huntingtons disease
(b) either person 6 or 7 should have the disease, if individual 11 shows the disease.
(c) at least one of the 2 children (8, 9) should have the disease
(d) all of these

The experiment shown in the given figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of linkage and recombination. If in
cross I, genes are tightly linked and in cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will be the percentage of recombinants produced in cross I
and cross II respectively?

(a) 98.7% and 62.8%
(b) 1.3% and 37.2%
(c) 37.2 and 1.3%
(d) 62.8% and 98.7%

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : The genetic complement of an organism is called genotype.
Reason : Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of an organism. [1999]

2-Assertion : Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidize an amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine,
because of a defective enzyme.
Reason : It results in the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine. [2000]

3-Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child produced will be male or female.
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.

4-Assertion : Haemophilia is a recessive sex linked disease.
Reason : Haemophilia occurs due to mutation of a structural gene on chromosome 15. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.1-6) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration. [2008]

2-Assertion : In case of incomplete linkage, linked gene show new combination along with parental combination.
Reason : In case of incomplete linkage, linked genes are separated by crossing over. [2010]

3-Assertion: Aneuploidy may be of hypoploidy or hyperploidy type.
Reason: Monosomy lacks one pair of chromosomes. [2011]

4-Assertion : Cross of F1 individual with recessive homozygous parent is test cross.
Reason : No recessive individual are obtained in the monohybrid test cross. [2012]

5-Assertion : In Mirabilis, selfing of F1 F1 pink flower plants produces same phenotypic & genotypic ratio.
Reason : Flower colour gene shows incomplete dominance. [2014]

6-Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child produced will be male or female.
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome. [2015, 2017]

CHAPTER-28:Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The process through which the amount of DNA, RNA and protein can be known at a time is called [1997]
(a) autoradiography
(b) tissue culture
(c) cellular fractioning
(d) phase contrast microscopy

Balbiani rings are found in [1997]
(a) polysomes
(b) polytene chromosomes
(c) autosomes
(d) nonsense chromosomes

In DNA helix, cytosine is paired with guanine by [1997]
(a) covalent bond
(b) phosphate bond
(c) three hydrogen bonds
(d) two hydrogen bonds

Which RNAs pick up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis ? [1998]
(a) tRNA (b) mRNA
(c) rRNA (d) hnRNA

The structure of DNA is [1998]
(a) linear (b) double helix
(c) single helix (d) triple helix

Transposon was discovered by [1998]
(a) Sutton (b) Strassburger
(c) Fischer (d) B.Mc Clintock

Root cell of wheat has 42 chromosomes. What would be the number of chromosomes in the synergid cell ? [1999]
(a) 7 (b) 14
(c) 21 (d) 28

Okazaki fragments form [2000]
(a) leading strand (b) lagging strand
(c) non-sense strand (d) senseful strand

Wobble hypothesis was given by [2002]
(a) F.H.C. Crick (b) Nirenberg
(c) Holley (d) Khorana

Which one of the following pairs of terms/names mean one and the same thing? [2003]
(a) Gene pool-genome
(b) Codon-gene
(c) Cistron-triplet
(d) DNA fingerprinting – DNA profiling

What is true about t-RNA? [2003]
(a) It binds with an amino acid at it 3′ end.
(b) It has five double stranded regions.
(c) It had a codon at one end which recognizes the anticodon on messenger RNA.
(d) It looks like clover leaf in the three dimensional structure.

Which one of the following codons codes for the same information as UGC? [2003]
(a) UGU (b) UGA
(c) UAG (d) UGG

During protein synthesis in an organism, at one point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which anyone of the three could bring about this halt. [2006]
(a) UUU, UCC, UAU (b) UUC, UUA, UAC
(c) UAG, UGA, UAA (d) UUG, UCA, UCG

The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about [2004, 2008]
(a) 3.5 million (b) 35 thousand
(c) 35 million (d) 3.1 billion

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the codon and the amino acid coded by it ? [2004, 2008]
(a) UUA-valine (b) AM-lysine
(c) AUG-cysteine (d) CCC-alanine

What is the error in above diagram? [2009]
(a) Arrows are wrongly depicted.
(b) Polarity is incorrect.
(c) Both arrows and polarity are incorrect.
(d) None of the above.

TATA box of eukaryotic promotor lies [2010]
(a) about 25 bp upstream of the transcription start site.
(b) about 50 bp upstream of the transcription start site.
(c) about 75 bp upstream of the transcription start site.
(d) about 200 bp upstream of the transcription start site.

Which one of the following correctly represents the manner of replication of DNA ? [2003, 2012]

Select the correct option: [2014]
Direction of RNA ____________Direction of reading of
synthesis the template DNA strand
(a) 5´—3´…………………………… 3´—5´
(b) 3´—5´……………………………. 5´—3´
(c) 5´—3´ ……………………………..5´—3´
(d) 3´—5´…………………………….. 3´—5´

Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA? [2014]
(a) 5′ – GAATTC – 3′
3′ – CTTAAG – 5′
(b) 5′ – CCAATG – 3′
3′ – GAATCC – 5′
(c) 5′ – CATTAG – 3′
3′ – GATAAC – 5′
(d) 5′ – GATACC – 3′
3′ – CCTAAG – 5′

Thirty percent of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted from eukaryotic cells is adenine. What percentage of cytosine is present in this DNA?
[2015]
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40%

There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome? [2015]
(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, b (d) None of these

Which one of the following group of codons is called as degenerate codons? [2016]
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA
(c) UUC, UUG, CCU, CAA and CUG
(d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG

The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C. Identify A, B and C. [2017]

(a) A – DNA; B – H1 histone;
C – Histone octamer
(b) A – H1 histone; B – DNA;
C – Histone octamer
(c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA;
C – H1 histone
(d) A – RNA; B – H1 histone;
C – Histone octamer

Match the codons given incolumn I with their respective amino acids given in column II and choose the correct answer. [2017]

(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Histones are basic proteins of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA. DNA and histones comprise chromatin forming
the bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.
Reason : Histones are of five major types H1,H2 H3,H3 and H4 . [2000]

2-Assertion: mRNA attaches to ribosome through its 3′ end.
Reason: The mRNA has F-capsular nucleotide and bases of lagging sequence. [2002]

3-Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote. [2006]
Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal.

4-Assertion: Polytene chromosomes have a high amount of DNA.
Reason: Polytene chromosomes are formed by repeated replication. [2006]

Directions for (Qs.31-35) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

1-Assertion : DNA is associated with proteins. Reason : DNA binds around histone proteins that form a pool and the entire structure is called
a nucleosome. [2013]

2-Assertion : The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active, energy requiring process.
Reason : Transformation occurs in only those bacteria, which possess the enzymatic machinery involved in the active uptake and recombination [2014]

3-Assertion : UAA, UAG and UGA terminate protein synthesis.
Reason : They are not recognised by tRNA. [2011, 2014]

4-Assertion : In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt before G–C rich parts.
Reason : In between A and T there are three H–bond, whereas in between G and C there are two H-bonds. [2010, 2015]

5-Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation takes place in the cytoplasm.
Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.
[2008, 2015, 2017]

CHAPTER-29: Evolution

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The branch of science dealing with process of improvement of human race by selective breeding is called [1997]
(a) Eugenics (b) Euthenics
(c) Euphenics (d) Obstetrics

The connecting link between annelida and mollusca is [1998]
(a) Neoplina (b) Nautilus
(c) Glochidium (d) Velliger larva

Theory of Pangenesis was given by [1998]
(a) Lamarck (b) Oparin
(c) Darwin (d) De Vries

The cranial capacity was largest among the [2002]
(a) Peking man (b) African man
(c) Java Ape man (d) Neanderthal man

A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case exhibiting [2004]
(a) retrogressive evolution
(b) mutation
(c) atavism
(d) metamorphosis

The study of homologous structures in mature organisms provides evidence for the evolutionary relationships among certain groups of organisms. Which field of study includes this evidence of evolution? [2009]
(a) Comparative cytology
(b) Biochemistry
(c) Geology
(d) Comparative anatomy

Darwin’s finches were a good example of [2009]
(a) convergent evolution
(b) adaptive radiation
(c) mutation
(d) none of the above

Wings of pigeon, mosquito and bat show [1999, 2007, 2011]
(a) divergent evolution
(b) atavism
(c) convergent evolution
(d) all of these

Which of the following cannot be explained by Lamarckism? [2012]
(a) Absence of lips in snakes
(b) Long neck of giraffe
(c) Degeneration of visual apparatus in cave dwellers
(d) Dull progeny of noble laureate

Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of [2013]
(a) analogous organs
(b) homologous organs
(c) vestigial organs
(d) retrogressive evolution

Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of [2014]
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Adaptive radiation
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Convergent evolution

The diagram represents Miller’s experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling. [2015]

(a) A–electrodes, B– NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4,
C–cold water, D–vacuum, E–U trap
(b) A–electrodes, B–NH4 + H2 + CO2 + CH3,
C–hot water, D–vacuum, E–U trap
(c) A–electrodes, B–NH3 + H2O, C–hot water,
D–tap, E–U trap
(d) A–electrodes, B–NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4,
C–steam, D– vacuum, E–U trap

A population is in Hardy- weinberg equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles. If the gene frequency of an allele A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is [2014, 2016]
(a) 0.21 (b) 0.42
(c) 0.36 (d) 0.7

According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation
in the absence of other evolutionary influences. It makes several assumptions which were given below. [2017]
i. Random Mating
ii. Sexual Reproduction
iii. Non-overlapping Generations
iv. Occurrence of Natural Selection
v. Small size of population
Identify two assumptions which do not meet for a population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
(a) iv and v (b) ii and iv
(c) iii, iv and v (d) i, ii and iii

Which of the following was most similar to modern man? [2017]
(a) Java man
(b) Neanderthal man
(c) Homo habilis
(d) Cro-Magnon man

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-10) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: We have lost all the direct evidence of origin of life.
Reason: The persons responsible for protecting evidences were not skilled. [1998]

2-Assertion : Ginkgo biloba is a living fossil.
Reason : Organism which have persisted and remain unchanged for the past several million years while their relatives disappeared. [2000]

3-Assertion : Among the primates, chimpanzee is the closest relative of the present day humans.
Reason : The banding pattern in the autosome numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar. [2004]

4-Assertion : From evolutionary point of view, human gestation period is believed to be shortening.
Reason : One major evolutionary trend in humans has been the larger head undergoing relatively faster growth rate in the foetal stage. [2004]

5-Assertion : Coacervates are believed to be the precursors of life.
Reason : Coacervates were self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by lipid molecules. [2004]

6-Assertion : Human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail expressing gene has disappeared in them.
Reason : Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called theory of continuity of germ plasm. [2005]

7-Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides a strong evidence in favour of common ancestory of living beings.
Reason : Genetic code is universal. [2005]

8-Assertion : Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds.
Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s finches radiated out from South American mainland to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free new habitats. [2005]

9-Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason :The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. [2006]

10-Assertion : The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of horse is eohippus.
Reason : Eohippus lived during the early pliocene epoch. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.27-30) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : The primitive atmosphere was reducing one i.e., without oxygen. [2009]
Reason : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was involved in forming ozone.

2-Assertion : Jave Ape-man, Peking man and Heidelberg man are the fossils of Homo erectus.
Reason : Homo erectus evolved from Homo habilis. [2009]

3-Assertion : Natural selection is the outcome of difference in survival and reproduction among individuals that show variation in one or more
traits.
Reason : Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common; less adaptive ones become less common or disappear. [2004, 2012]

4-Assertion : Organic compounds first evolved in earth required for origin of life were protein and nucleic acid.
Reason : All life forms were in water environment only. [2016]

CHAPTER-30: Human Health & Diseases

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Gambusia fish has been introduced in lakes and ponds of India to control a deadly disease. It feeds on larva of [1997]
(a) nepenthes (b) anopheles
(c) dragon fly (d) house-fly

Anti-viral substance is [1997]
(a) antigen (b) antibody
(c) interferon (d) antibiotic

Which malarial parasite has longest incubation period? [1997]
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Plasmodium ovale

The type of antibodies present in colostrum secreted from mammary gland is [1997]
(a) IgM (b) IgD
(c) IgE (d) IgA

Which of the following disease is due to an allergic reaction ? [1998]
(a) Goitre (b) Hay fever
(c) Skin cancer (d) Rheumatic fever

Influenza is caused by [1998]
(a) virus (b) bacteria
(c) alga (d) fungus

Which type of cancer is found in lymph nodes and spleen? [1998]
(a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma
(c) Lymphoma (d) Leukemia

Amoebiasis is caused by [1999]
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Taenia solium
(c) Plasmodium vivax
(d) E. coli

Inflammatory response, in allergy is caused by the release of [1999]
(a) antigen (b) histones
(c) histamines (d) antibodies

Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in [1999]
(a) liver of man
(b) RBCs of man
(c) stomach wall of mosquito
(d) salivary glands of mosquito

Malignant tertain malaria is caused by [2000]
(a) P. vivax (b) P. malariae
(c) P. ovale (d) P. falciparum

HIV has a protein coat and genetic material [2000]
(a) ss RNA (b) ds RNA
(c) ss DNA (d) ds DNA

Cyclosporine is used [2002]
(a) For allergy
(b) As immunodepressent
(c) Prophylactic for virus
(d) None of the above

Lysis of foreign cell is mediated through [2002]
(a) IgM (b) IgA
(c) IgE (d) IgM & IgG

The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an example of [2004]
(a) artificially acquired active immunity
(b) artificially acquired passive immunity
(c) naturally acquired passive immunity
(d) specific natural immunity

Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat [2004]
(a) enlarged prostate gland
(b) gall bladder stones by breaking them
(c) certain types of cancer
(d) kidney stones

A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity, feeling of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness. Possibly he was taking [2005]
(a) Amphetamine (b) Marijuana
(c) Pethadine (d) Valium

When children play bare footed in pools of dirty water and flood water, they may suffer from diseases like [2006]
(a) leptospirosis and bilharizia
(b) malaria, amoebic dysentery and leptospirosis
(c) bilharizia, infective hepatitis and diarrhoea
(d) guinea worm infection, elephantiasis and amoebic dysentery

Which one of the following is not a matching pair of a drug and its category ? [2004, 2008]
(a) Amphetamines – stimulant
(b) Lysergic acid – narcotic dimethyl amide
(c) Heroin – psychotropic
(d) Benzodiazepam – pain killer

An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as [2005, 2008]
(a) histamine and dopamine
(b) histamine and kinins
(c) interferons and opsonin
(d) interferons and histones

Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between [2005, 2008]
(a) two light chains
(b) two heavy chains
(c) one heavy and one light chain
(d) either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen

The antigen-binding site are present where on the antibody molecule [2009]
(a) on light chain as well as on heavy chain.
(b) on light chain only.
(c) on variable region and constant region of light chain.
(d) on heavy chain only

Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy? [2010]
(a) Isoniazid
(b) R-aminosalicylic acid
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Rifampicin

Antigen is a substance which [2010]
(a) lowers body temperature
(b) destroys harmful bacteria
(c) triggers the immune system
(d) is used as an antidote to poison

Which of the following is a pentameric immunoglobulin and is produced first in a primary response to an antigen? [2010]
(a) Ig G (b) Ig M
(c) IgA (d) Ig E

Cattle fed with spoilt hay to sweet clover which contains dicumarol [2011]
(a) are healthier due to a good diet
(b) catch infections easily
(c) may suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
(d) may suffer from beri-beri due to deficiency of vitamin-B

Opium is obtained from [2011]
(a) Oryza sativa
(b) Coffea arabica
(c) Thea sinensis
(d) Papaver somniferum

Match the following bacteria with the diseases
Column-I_____________________ Column-II
A. Treponema pallidum …………I. Plague
B. Yersinia pestis ……………………II. Anthrax
C. Bacillus anthracis……………… III. Syphilis
D. Vibrio…………………………………. IV. Cholera
[2012]
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

Which one of the following is a correct match?
[2013]
(a) Bhang – Analgesic
(b) Cocaine – Opiate narcotics
(c) Morphine – Hallucinogen
(d) Barbiturate – Tranquiliser

Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder? [2013]
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Muscular dystrophy
(d) Gout

Which of the following is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction? [2014]
(a) PCR
(b) ELISA
(c) r-DNA technology
(d) RNA

Identify the molecules (A) and (B) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? [2016]
(a) Cholera – Vibrio cholerae
(b) German measles – Rubella virus
(c) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis
(d) Tetanus – Pasteurella pestis

Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is [2017]
(a) Single stranded DNA.
(b) Single stranded RNA.
(c) Double stranded RNA.
(d) Double stranded DNA.

Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes? [2017]
(a) Elephantiasis and dengue
(b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(c) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness
(d) Yellow fever and dengue

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-8) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: There is no chance of malaria to a man on the bite of male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulant strain of Plasmodium.

2-Assertion : Rabies is an infection of mammals, it involves central nervous system which may
result in paralysis and finally death.
Reason : This is caused by neurotropic bacteria
in saliva of rabies animal. [2000]

3-Assertion : Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria.
Reason : Malaria is caused by polluted water. [2001]

4-Assertion: Histamine is related with allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason: Histamine is a vasodilator. [2002]

5-Assertion : Organ transplantation patients are given immunosuppressive drugs.
Reason : Transplanted tissue has antigens which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient. [2005]

6-Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as a analgesics. [2006]
Reason:Both these drugs suppress brain function.

7-Assertion : A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment. [2006]
Reason : Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus.

8-Assertion (A) : Antigen can be easily recognized because it has antigenic determinants.
Reason (R) : The recognition ability is innate. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.1-12) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases.
Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
[2008]

2-Assertion : Dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath of persons drinking alcohol.
Reason : A drunken person usually feels tense and less talkative. [2004, 2008]

3-Assertion : Interferons are a type of’antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Reason : Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury. [2004, 2008]

4-Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions.
Reason : Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals. [2003, 2008]

5-Assertion : Cannabis sativa is a powerful anti-depressant.
Reason : Hashish and Marijuana are derived from it. [2009]

6-Assertion: Epstein– Barr virus is an oncovirus.
Reason: It stimulates the growth of cancer.[2011]

7-Assertion: HIV infected person are prone to oppurtunistic diseases.
Reason: Immune system weakens during HIV infection. [2011]

8-Assertion : Histamine is involved in allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason : Histamine is a vasodilator. [2012]

8-Assertion : The antibodies separted from serum are homogenous.
Reason : Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous immunological reagents. [2013]

9-Assertion : Interferons are effective against viruses.
Reason : Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are effective against viruses. [2013, 2014]

10-Assertion : Cancer cells are virtually immortal until the body in which they reside dies.
Reason : Cancer is caused by damage to genes regulating the cell division cycle. [2006, 2015]

11-Assertion : Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.
Reason : Injecting the microbes intentionally during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection
induces active immunity. [2016]

12-Assertion: Artificially acquired passive immunity results when antibodies or lymphocytes produced outside the host are introduced into a host.
Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a patient with genetic immunodeficiency is an example of artificially acquired passive immunity.
[2017]

CHAPTER-31: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The chemical which are produced by host plants due to infection as a defence reaction to pathogen, are called [1997]
(a) phytotoxin (b) toxin
(c) phytotron (d) phytoalexins

Auxanometer is used to measure [1998]
(a) length (b) respiration
(c) transpiration (d) ascent of sap

Crop rotation is used to increase [1999]
(a) soil fertility
(b) pore size and soil particle
(c) organic content of soil
(d) viscosity of soil water

Haploid cultures can be obtained by culturing
(a) pollen grains (b) embryo [2000]
(c) shoot apex (d) root apex

Azolla is used as a biofertilizer because it[2003]
(a) multiplies very fast to produce massive biomass
(b) has association of nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium
(c) has association of nitrogen-fixing Cyanobacteria
(d) has association of mycorrhiza

Pruning of plants promotes branching because the axillary buds get sensitized to [2004]
(a) ethylene (b) gibberellin
(c) cytokinin (d) indole acetic acid

Somaclonal variation can be obtained by[2004]
(a) application of colchicine
(b) irradiation with gamma rays
(c) tissue culture
(d) hybridisation

Somaclonal variation appears in [2005]
(a) organisms produced through somatic hybridization.
(b) plants growing in highly polluted conditions.
(c) apomictic plants.
(d) tissue culture raised plants.

In an experiment freshly hatched larvae of an insect (Khapra beetle) were reared on a basal diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results obtained are shown in the given graph.
[2005, 2008]

The graph indicates
(a) cholesterol is an essential dietary requirement of khapra beetle.
(b) growth of khapra beetle is directly proportional to cholesterol concentration.
(c) cholesterol concentration of 2 μg/g diet is the optimum level.
(d) growth of khapra beetle is inhibited when cholesterol concentration exceeds 5 μg/g diet.

A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of [2006]
(a) stock
(b) scion
(c) both stock and scion
(d) neither stock nor scion

Cocoa is the plant from which chocolate is made. Which part is used to extract it? [2007]
(a) Flower (b) Fruit
(c) Seeds (d) Bark

Bean seeds were planted and put on a sunny windowsill. As the plants grew, their stems bent toward the window. This bending was most likely
caused by an [2009]
Strategies for Enhancement in
(a) unequal distribution of auxin in the stem.
(b) unequal distribution of a neurotransmitter in the stem.
(c) equal distribution of auxin in the stem.
(d) equal distribution of a neurotransmitter in the stem.

Phytotron is a facility to [2010]
(a) grow plants under disease-free conditions.
(b) conserve endangered species of plants.
(c) grow plants under controlled conditions.
(d) induce mutations

Essential oils are those which [2011]
(a) are essential to the plant itself
(b) are used as lubricants
(c) produce perfumes
(d) are essential for human beings

Coconut water is rich in [2011]
(a) auxins (b) gibberellins
(c) abscisic acid (d) cytokinin

Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers? [2014]
(a) Azolla and BGA
(b) Nostoc and legume
(c) Rhizobium and grasses
(d) Salmonella & E. coli

Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by one of the breeding technique in which superior male of one breed is mated with
superior females of another breed. Identify the breeding technique from the option given below. [2016]
(a) Inbreeding (b) Out crossing
(c) Out breeding (d) Cross breeding

Biodiversity loss occurs due to the reasons given below. [2017]
(i) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(ii) Co-extinction
(iii) Over-exploitation
(iv) Alien species invasion
Identify the correct reasons.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Explant is required to be disinfected before placing in culture. This is done by [2017]
(a) autoclaving
(b) ultra-violet rays
(c) clorax or hypochlorite
(d) X-rays

Which of the following is a viral disease of poultry birds? [2017]
(a) Anthrax (b) Ranikhet
(c) Coccidiosis (d) None of these

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : In plant tissue culture somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason : Any viable plant cell can differentiate into somatic embryos. [2003]

2-Assertion : Use of fertilizers greatly enhances crop productivity.
Reason : Irrigation is very important in increasing crop productivity. [2003]

3-Assertion : Fish meal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
Reason : Fish meal is produced from non-edible parts of fishes like fins, tail etc. [2004]

4-Assertion : Cattle breeds can be improved by super ovulation and embryo transplantation.
Reason : Superovulation in high milk-yielding cows is induced by hormonal injection. [2004]

5-Assertion (A) : Vernalization is acceleration of subsequent flowering by low temperature treatment.
Reason (R) : Site of vernalization is apical meristem. [2007]

Directions for (Qs. 26-31) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason : Any viable plant cell can differentiate into somatic embryos. [2008]

2-Assertion : Cattle breeds can be improved by superovulaton and embryo transplantaion.
Reason : Superovulation in high milk-yielding cows is induced by hormonal injection. [2013]

3-Assertion : In case of vegetatively propagated crops, pure-line selection is not required.
Reason : Hybrid vigour is mostly used in vegetatively propagated plants. [2013]

4-Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking industry.
Reason : Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal expansion. [2015]

5-Assertion : Somatic embryos can be induced from any cell in plant tissue culture.
Reason : Any living plant cell is capable of differentiating into somatic embryos. [2017]

6-Assertion : A major advantage of tissue culture is protoplast fusion.
Reason : A hybrid is formed by the fusion of naked protoplasts of two plants. [2017]

chapter-32: Microbes in Human Welfare

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Which of the following antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Flemming ? [2000]
(a) Streptomycin (b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin (d) Terramycin

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? [2003]
(a) Rhizobium – Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants.
(b) Mycorrhizae – Mineral uptake from soil.
(c) Yeast – Production of biogas.
(d) Myxomycetes – The ringworm diseases.

The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of its ability to [2004]
(a) transfer genes from one plant to another.
(b) decompose a variety of organic compounds.
(c) fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
(d) produce a wide variety of antibiotics.

Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (broad spectrum antibiotics) are produced by [2014]
(a) Streptomyces (b) Nitrobacter
(c) Rhizobium (d) Penicillium

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given: [2014]
(a) Penicillin (b) Streptokinase
(c) Cyclosporin-A (d) Statins

Microbes are used in [2015]

  1. primary treatment of sewage
  2. secondary treatment of sewage
  3. anaerobic sludge digester
  4. production of bioactive molecules
    (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

Choose the right combination
Column-I ________________Column-II
A. Escherichia coli ………….I. Nif gene
B. Rhizobium melilotae ….II. Digestive
hydrocarbon
of crude oil

C. Bacillus thuringiensis ………..III. Production of
human insulin
D. Pseudomonas putida…………. IV. Biological
control of fungal disease
V. Biodecomposed
insectiside [2016]

(a) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II

What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is reduced? [2016]
(a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter.
(b) The centre of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
(c) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs.
(d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers.

Which one of the following statement regarding BOD is true? [2017]
(a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.
(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.

The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for [2017]
(a) killing insects
(b) biological control of plant diseases
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) producing antibiotics

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Leguminous plants are nitrogen fixers.
Reason : Leguminous plants have Rhizobium in their root nodules. [1997]

2-Assertion : Nitrogen-fixing enzyme in legume root nodules function at low oxygen concentration.
Reason : Low oxygen concentration is provided by leghaemoglobin. [2004]

Directions for (Qs.1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

1-Assertion : Lichen is important for chemical industries.
Reason : Litmus and Orcein are formed from lichens. [2009]

2-Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking industry [2003, 2011]
Reason : Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal expansion.

3-Assertion : Vitamins B2 is found in cereals, green vegetables, brewer’s yeast, egg white, milk and liver.
Reason : It can be commercially produced by some yeasts. [2014]

CHAPTER-33: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Restriction endonucleases are used as [1998]
(a) molecular build up at nucleotides.
(b) molecular degradation to DNA breakup.
(c) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites.
(d) molecular cement to combine DNA sites.

In genetic engineering, which of the following is used ? [2001]
(a) Plasmid (b) Plastid
(c) Mitochondria (d) E.R.

Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is called [2002]
(a) tissue culture
(b) vernalization
(c) genetic engineering
(d) eugenics

An example of gene therapy is [2004]
(a) production of injectable hepatitis B vaccine.
(b) production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten.
(c) introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID).
(d) production of test tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs.

c-DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of [2005]
(a) restriction enzymes
(b) reverse transcriptase
(c) DNA polyermase
(d) adenosine deaminase

Electroporation procedure involves [2005]
(a) fast passage of food through sieve pores in phloem elements with the help of electric stimulation.
(b) opening of stomatal pores during night by artificial light.
(c) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs.
(d) purification of saline water with the help of a membrane system.

What is the first step in the Southern blot technique? [2004, 2008]
(a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.
(b) Production of a group of genetically identical cells.
(c) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
(d) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime.

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology was discovered by [2009]
(a) Karry Mullis
(b) Saiki et al
(c) Craig Venter
(d) Maxam and Gilbert

After 4 PCR cycles how many DNA molecules are formed from one DNA template molecule ?[2012]
(a) 4 (b) 32
(c) 16 (d) 8

Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called as [2013]
(a) biotechnology (b) bioinformatics
(c) biogeography (d) bioscience

Identify the correct match for the given apparatus. [2013]

Apparatus ___________Function
(a) Gene gun …………….Vectorless direct gene transfer
(b) Column………………..Separation of chlorophyll pigments
chromatograph
(c) Stirred tank………….. Carry out fermentation process
bioreactor
(d) Respirometer ………..Finding out rate of respiration

Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using [2014]
(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Cloning vectors
(c) DNA probes
(d) Gene targets

Choose the correct option.

Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme? [2016]
(a) 5’………….CGTTCG………….3′
3’………….ATGGTA………….5′
(b) 5’………….GATATG………….3′
3’………….CTACTA………….5′
(c) 5’………….GAATTC………….3′
3’………….CTTAAG………….5′
(d) 5’………….CACGTA………….3′
3’………….CTCAGT………….5′

Which of the following statement is not correct about cloning vector ? [2017]
(a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
(b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants.
(c) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have single recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
(d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
Reason : Plasmids are found in bacteria and are useful in genetic engineering. [2001]

2-Assertion: Plasmids are single-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.
Reason: Plasmids are usually present in eukaryotic cells.

3-Assertion: Clones are produced by sexual reproduction.
Reason: These are prepared by group of cells descended from many cells or by inbreeding of a heterozygous line.

4-Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which expresses the desired gene. [2005]

5-Assertion : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with the roots of all cereal and pulse crops.
Reason : A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome-gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium
is associated. [2005]

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends. [2009]
Reason : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.

2-Assertion : “DNA finger printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. [2010]
Reason : Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.

3-Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote). .
Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population, which express the desired gene. [2008, 2015]

4-Assertion : Insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of β-galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
Reason : Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme β-galactosidase known as insertional inactivation. [2017]

CHAPTER-34:Biotechnology & its Applications

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A tumour inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plant is that of [2005]
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Which one of the following is a correct statement? [2005]
(a) “Bt” in “Bt-cotton” indicates that it is a genetically modified organism produced through biotechnology.
(b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete plant cells carrying desired genes.
(c) The anticoagulant ‘hirudin’ is being produced from transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
(d) “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enhanced the production of ethylene
which improves its taste.

Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means [2008]
(a) barium-treated cotton seeds
(b) bigger thread variety of cotton with better tensile strength
(c) produced by biotechnology using restriction enzymes and ligases
(d) carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait [2012]
(a) High lysine (essential amino acid) content
(b) Insect resistance
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin-A content

How many varieties of rice has been estimated to be present in India? [2013]
(a) 2,000 (b) 20,000
(c) 200,000 (d) 2,000,000

The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called [2013]
(a) crop protection (b) breeding
(c) bio-fortification (d) bio-remediation

Which of the following is a variety of Brassica resistance to white rust disease? [2014]
(a) Himgiri
(b) Pusa Kamal
(c) Pusa Swarnim (Karan rai)
(d) Pusa Sadabahar

The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 years old girl with enzyme deficiency of [2014]
(a) Adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(b) Tyrosine oxidase
(c) Monamine oxidase
(d) Glutamate dehydrogenase

Select the correct statement(s)- [2015]
(1) IARI has released a mustard variety rich in vitamin C.
(2) Pusa Sawani variety of Okra is resistant to aphids.
(3) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance to insect pests.
(4) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India’s GDP and employs nearly 62% of the population.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1), (3) and (4) (d) None of these

Read the following four statements (1-4) about certain mistakes in two of them

  1. The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alphalactal albumin enriched.
  2. Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
  3. Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
    34 Biotechnology & its Applications B-184 Topicwise AIIMS Solved Papers – BIOLOGY
  4. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
    Which are the two statements having mistakes? [2015]
    (a) Statement 2 and 3 (b) Statement 3 and 4
    (c) Statement 1 and 3 (d) Statement 1 and 2

A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is [2016]
(a) golden rice (b) Bt soyabean
(c) flavr – savr tomato (d) starlink maize

Which variety of rice was patented by a U.S. company even though the highest number of varieties of this rice is found in India ? [2017]
(a) Sharbati Sonara (b) Co-667
(c) Basmati (d) Lerma Roja

Directions for (Q. 1) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. [2010]
Reason : The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.

CHAPTER-35:Organisms and Populations

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Territoriality occurs as a result of [1998]
(a) competition (b) parasitism
(c) predation (d) co-operation

Obligate parasites live on [1999]
(a) living host only
(b) living host and dead organic matter
(c) dead organic matter only
(d) artificial liquid medium

Mycorrhiza help in absorption of [1999]
(a) calcium (b) nutrients
(c) metals (d) none of these

The plants which can withstand narrow range of temperature tolerance are called [2000]
(a) stenothermal (b) eurythermal
(c) mesothermal (d) monothermal

Abundance of a species in a population, within habitat is called [2001]
(a) niche density
(b) absolute density
(c) relative density
(d) geographic density

The maintenance of internal favourable conditions, by a self regulated mechanisms inspite of the fact that there are changes in environment, is known as [2001]
(a) entropy (b) enthalpy
(c) homoeostasis (d) steady state

July 11 is observed as [2003]
(a) World Population Day
(b) No Tobacco Day
(c) World Environment Day
(d) World Health Day

Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association? [2003]
(a) Shark and sucker fish – Commensalism
(b) Algae and fungi in lichens – Mutualism
(c) Orchids growing on trees – Parasitism
(d) Cuscuta (dodder) growing on other – flowering plants – Epiphytism

The great barrier reef along the east coast of Australia can be categorised as [2004]
(a) population (b) community
(c) ecosystem (d) biome

Which one of the following correctly represents an organism and its ecological niche ? [2005]
(a) Vallisneria and pond
(b) Desert locust (Schistocerca) and desert
(c) Plant lice (aphids) and leaf
(d) Vultures and dense forest

Keystone species deserve protection because these [2006]
(a) are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions.
(b) indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil.
(c) have become rare due to overexploitation.
(d) play an important role in supporting other species.

A lizard-like member of reptila is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around a twig. This animal could be [2006]
(a) Hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism
(b) Varanus showing mimicry
(c) Garden lizard (Calotes) showing camouflage
(d) Chamaeleon showing protective colouration

Carrying capacity is [2009]
(a) the capacity of an individual to produce young ones.
(b) availability of resources in a given habitat to support a certain no of individuals of population, beyond which no further growth is possible.
(c) gene frequency from one generation to next.
(d) gene frequency in same generation.

Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called [2010]
(a) keystone species
(b) allopatric species
(c) sympatric species
(d) threatened species

Presence of flagellated protozoans in the gut of termites are the example [2012]
(a) Symbiosis (b) Parasitism
(c) Antibiosis (d) Commensalism

The formula for exponential population growth is [2013]
(a) dN/rN = dt (b) rN / dN = dt
(c) dN / dt = rN (d) dt / dN = rN

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called [2014]
(a) Net productivity
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Net primary productivity
(d) Gross primary productivity

If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruitflies died during a specified time interval (i.e., a week), the death rate in the population during
that period is [2014]
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.4

A population of 500 that experiences 55 births and 5 deaths during a one-year period. What is the reproductive rate for the population during
the one-year period ? [2015]
(a) 0.01/year (b) 0.05/year
(c) 0.1/year (d) 50/year

The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do A, B and C represent respectively? [2015]

The salinity in sea water in parts per thousand (ppt) ranges between [2016]
(a) 5-15% (b) 30-35%
(c) 50-75% (d) more than 100%

In Urn shaped age pyramid of the population the trend of growth is [2017]
(a) Rapid (b) Stable
(c) Declining (d) Stationary

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : These questions consist
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Leaf butterfly and stick insect show mimicry to dodge their enemies.
Reason : Mimicry is a method to acquire body colour blending with the surroundings. [2003]

2-Assertion : Animals adopt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason : Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage. [2004]

3-Assertion : The sex ratio of Kerala is highest in India.
Reason : In countries like India the population is increasing at a rapid rate. [2005]

Directions for (Qs. 26-30) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Thick cuticle is mostly present in disease resistant plants.
Reason : Disease causing agents cannot grow on cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle.[2012]

2-Assertion : In sigmoid growth curve, population finally stabilizes itself.
Reason : Finally, the death rate increases than the birth rate. [2013]

3-Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.[2015]

4-Assertion : Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area.
Reason : Flora helps in correct identification. [2016]

5-Assertion : Species are groups of potentially interbreeding natural populations which are isolated from other such groups.
Reason : Distinctive morphological characters are displayed due to reproductive isolation. [2017]

CHAPTER-36:Ecosystem

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The food chain in which microbes breakdown energy rich compounds synthesized by producers is called [1999]
(a) ecosystem
(b) parasitic food chain
(c) detritus level chain
(d) predator food chain

10 % law of energy transfer was given by
(a) Lindemann (b) Tansley [2000]
(c) Stanley (d) Darwin

Food chain starts with [2000]
(a) autotrophs (b) herbivores
(c) carnivores (d) decomposers

Flora and fauna in lake or ponds is [2000]
(a) lentic biota (b) lotic biota
(c) abiotic biota (d) field layer

The enzyme responsible for the reduction of molecular nitrogen to the level of ammonia in the leguminous root nodule is [2000]
(a) nitrogenase (b) nitrate reductase
(c) nitrite reductase (d) ammoneases

The role of bacteria in carbon cycle is [2000]
(a) photosynthesis
(b) chemosynthesis
(c) decomposition of organic compounds
(d) evolution of O2

Trophic levels are formed by : [2001]
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) organisms linked in food chain
(d) carnivores

Desert can be converted into green land by planting [2001]
(a) oxylophytes (b) psammophytes
(c) halophytes (d) trees

Mr. X is eating curd/yoghurt. For this food intake in a food chain Mr. X should be considered as occupying [2003]
(a) first trophic level
(b) second trophic level
(c) third trophic level
(d) fourth trophic level

Given below is one of the types of ecological pyramids. This type represents [2005]

(a) pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(b) pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(c) pyramid of biomass in a lake
(d) energy pyramid in a spring

The function of leghaemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to [2006]
(a) convert atmospheric N2 to NH3
(b) convert ammonia to nitrite
(c) transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen

An ecosystem, such as an aquarium, is selfsustaining if it involves the interaction between organisms, a flow of energy, and the presence of [2009]
(a) equal numbers of plants and animals
(b) more animals than plants
(c) materials cycles
(d) pioneer organisms

The graph below shows the changes in two populations of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that [2009]

(a) all of the plant populations in this habitat decreased.
(b) population B competed more successfully for food than population A did.
(c) population A produced more offspring than population B did.
(d) population A consumed the members of population B.

A scorpion stalks, kills, and then eats a spider. Based on its behavior, which ecological terms describe the scorpion? [2009]
(a) producer, herbivore, decomposer
(b) producer, carnivore, heterotroph
(c) predator, carnivore, consumer
(d) predator, autotroph, herbivore

In the vast marine ecosystem, certain sea develop red colouration. This red colour is due to the presence of large population of which one of the following organisms? [2009]
(a) Trichodesmium erythrium
(b) Physarium
(c) Dinoflagellates
(d) Diatoms and members of red algae

The xerophytic plants conserve water by storing it in [2009]
(a) intercellular spaces
(b) normal parenchymatous cells
(c) intercellular spaces and parenchymatous cells
(d) parenchymatous cells specialized for this purpose

Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because [2010]
(a) their blooming is controlled by low temperature.
(b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon.
(c) the desert insects eat away flowers during day time.
(d) the desert insects are active during night time.

Whale is [2012]
(a) Primary producer
(b) Carnivorous, secondary consumer
(c) A decomposer
(d) Herbivorous

Which one of the following is not a function of an ecosystem? [2013]
(a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition
(c) Productivity (d) Stratification

How much portion of the Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is captured by the plants? [2016]
(a) 5 – 10% (b) 7 – 10%
(c) 8 – 10% (d) 2 – 10%

Arrange the following ecosystems in increasing order of mean NPP (Tonnes / ha / year)
A. Tropical deciduous forest
B. Temperate coniferous forest
C. Tropical rain forest
D. Temperate deciduous forest [2017]
(a) B < A < D < C
(b) D < B < A < C
(c) A < C < D < B
(d) B < D < A < C

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: Insectivorous habitat of plants is to cope up O2 deficiency.
Reason: Insectivorous plants are partly autotrophic and partly heterotrophic. [1998]

Directions for (Qs. 23-28) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as food web.
Reason : An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web. [2006, 2008, 2011]

2-Assertion : Pyramid of energy may be upright or inverted. [2011]
Reason: Only 20% of energy goes to next trophic level.

3-Assertion : Biotic community has higher position than population in ecological hierarchy.
Reason : Population of similar individuals remains isolated in the community. [2012]

4-Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs. [2013]

5-Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs. [2016]

6-Assertion : In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer in number.
Reason : Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as food at the lower level.
[2003, 2017]

CHAPTER-37: Biodiversity and its Conservation

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Heavy rainfall during summer produces [1998]
(a) desert (b) grassland
(c) forest (d) wetland

The trees occurring in two seasons is the characteristic feature of [1998]
(a) temperate deciduous forest
(b) tropical savannah
(c) grassland
(d) coniferous forest

The map given below indicates the former and the present distribution of an animal. [2003]

Which animal could it be?
(a) Wild ass (b) Nilgai
(c) Black buck (d) Lion

If the high altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants which may disappear along with them are [2004]
(a) pine (b) oak
(c) orchids (d) Rhododendrons

Which one of the following is a pair of endangered species? [2004]
(a) Garden lizard and Mexican poppy
(b) Rhesus monkey and sal tree
(c) Indian peacock and carrot grass
(d) Hornbill and Indian aconite

Which one of the following is correct matching of a plant, its habit and forest type where it normally occurs? [2005]
(a) Prosopis, tree, scrub
(b) Saccharum officinarum, grass, forest
(c) Shorea robusta, herb, tropical rain forest
(d) Acacia catechu, tree, coniferous forest

One of the ex-situ conservation methods for endangered species is [2005]
(a) wildlife sanctuaries
(b) biosphere reserves
(c) cryopreservation
(d) national parks

Genetic diversity in agricultural crops is threatened by [2005]
(a) introduction of high yielding varieties.
(b) intensive use of fertilizers.
(c) extensive intercropping.
(d) intensive use of biopesticides

The Montreal protocol refers to [2006]
(a) persistent organic pollutants
(b) global warming and climate change
(c) substances that deplete the ozone layer
(d) biosafety of genetically modified organisms

Biosphere reserves differ from National parks and Wildlife sanctuaries because in the former [2006]
(a) human beings are not allowed to enter.
(b) people are an integral part of the system.
(c) plants are paid greater attention than the
animals.
(d) living organisms are brought from all over
the world and preserved for posterity.

Which part of the world has a high density of organism? [2007]
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Grasslands
(c) Tropical rain forests
(d) Savannahs

Beta diversity is diversity [2007]
(a) in a community
(b) between communities
(c) in a mountain gradient
(d) on a plain

Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country ? [2008]
(a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
(b) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(d) Kerala and Punjab.

A tree species in Mauritus failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird? [2010]
(a) Dove (b) Dodo
(c) Condor (d) Skua

Tectonic is the study of [2011]
(a) volcanos (b) earth’s crust
(c) sand dunes (d) Sun

If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct [2004, 2012]
(a) Hyenas and wolves will become scare
(b) The wild area will be safe for man and domestic animals
(c) Its gene pool will be lost for ever
(d) The population of beautiful animals like deers will be stabilized.

Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ? [2013]
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Aravalli Hills
(d) Western Ghats

The largest Tiger reserve in India is [2014]
(a) Nagarhole
(b) Valmiki
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Periyar

Using the figure, determine the percentage of bird species that will be lost if the island’s inhabitable land area is reduced from 100,000 km2 to 1 km2.

A : Island land area (km2) [2016]
(a) 17 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(b) 20 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(c) All of bird species will be lost.
(d) 93 percent of the bird species will be lost.

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : In tropical rain forests. O-horizon and A-Horizon of soil profile are shallow and nutrient-poor.
Reason : Excessive growth of micro-organisms in the soil depletes its organic content.[2006]

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity. [2012, 2013]

2-Assertion : Diversity observed in the entire geographical area is called gamma diversity.
Reason : Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low altitude. [2014]

3-Assertion : A sanctuary is formed for the conservation of animals only.
Reason : Restricted human activities are allowed in sanctuaries. [2014]

4-Assertion: Communities that comprise of more species tend to be more stable.
Reason: A higher number of species results in less animal variation in total biomass. [2017]

CHAPTER-38: Environmental Issues

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Which of the following is biodegradable pollutant? [1997]
(a) Plastic (b) Asbestos
(c) Sewage (d) Polythene

Positive pollution of soil is due to [1997]
(a) reduction in soil productivity
(b) addition of waste to soil
(c) excessive use of fertilizers
(d) all of the above

Which of the following metal pollution causes sterility in human beings? [1998]
(a) Mercury (b) Arsenic
(c) Manganese (d) Chromium

Which of the following is dissolved in water to make Bordeaux mixture ? [1998]
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Copper sulphate
(c) Sodium chloride (d) None of these

Acid rain is due to pollution of [2000]
(a) dust (b) pesticides
(c) SO2 and NO2 (d) carbon particle

Deforestation causes [2001]
(a) soil erosion (b) soil pollution
(c) noise pollution (d) air pollution

Green mufler is useful against [2002]
(a) air pollution
(b) noise pollution
(c) soil pollution
(d) radioactive pollution

In almost all Indian metropolitan cities like Delhi, the major atmospheric pollutant(s) is / are[2003]
(a) suspended particulate matter (SPM)
(b) oxides of sulphur
(c) carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
(d) oxides of nitrogen

Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of [2003]
(a) ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx
(b) smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2
(c) hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2
(d) hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of [2003]
(a) industrial wastes poured into water bodies
(b) extent to which water is polluted with organic compound
(c) amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
(d) amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Drinking of mineral water with very low level of pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) for long periods may [2003]
(a) produce immunity against mosquito
(b) cause leukemia (blood cancer) in most people
(c) cause cancer of the intestine
(d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat

Minimata disease is pollution related disease. It results from [2001, 2004]
(a) oil spills in sea
(b) DDT pollution
(c) release of industrial waste containing mercury in fishing water
(d) accumulation of arsenic

organic waste may result in [2004]
(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
(b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
(c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
(d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Nitrogen oxides, produced from the emission of automobiles and power plants, are the source of fine air borne particles which lead to [2004]
(a) photochemical smog
(b) dry acid deposition
(c) industrial smog
(d) wet acid deposition

Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to [2005]
(a) excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water
(b) excess of nitrates in drinking water
(c) deficiency of iron in food
(d) increased methane content in the atmosphere

Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen can be most profitably minimized by [2006]
(a) storing them in underground storage tanks
(b) using them for producing biogas
(c) vermiculture
(d) using them directly as biofertilizers

Which one of the following is an environmentrelated disorder with the correct main cause? [2006]
(a) Black lung disease (pneumoconiosis) found mainly in workers in stone quarries and crushers.
(b) Blue baby disease (methaemoglobinaemia) due to heavy use of nitrogen rich fertilizers in the area.
(c) Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma found mainly in workers involved in manufacture of neem based pesticides.
(d) Skin cancer mainly in people exposed to benzene and methane.

Ozone in stratosphere extends [2007]
(a) 10-20 km (b) 20-25 km
(c) 15-30 km (d) 25-40 km

Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highest concentration of DDT, once it has been introduced into the ecosystem?
[2010]
(a) Grasshopper (b) Toad
(c) Snake (d) Cattle

Which one of the following statement pertaining to pollutants is correct? [2011]
(a) DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant
(b) Excess fluoride in drinking water causes osteoporosis hardening of bones, stiff joints
(c) Excess cadmium in drinking water causes black foot disease
(d) Methylmercury in water may cause “Itai Itai” disease

In the environment, ozone is known for its
(a) Harmful effects [2012]
(b) Useful effects
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Inert nature

Which one of the following statement is true? [2013]
(a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.
(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(a) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2[2013]
(b) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes
(c) Solar energy – green house effect
(d) Biomass burning – release of CO2

The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are [2014]
(a) CO4 and CH4 (b) CH4 and N2O
(c) CFCand N2O (d) CO2 and N2O

A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of
fishes within a few days. Consider the following
reasons for this:

  1. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crops in the vicinity
  2. The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
  3. The lake water turned green and stinky
  4. Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis.
    Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake? [2015]
    (a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
    (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is [2015]
(a) moderately toxic
(b) non-toxic to aquatic animals
(c) water soluble
(d) lipo soluble

Two lakes, A and B are identical in all aspects except that lake A has higher temperature.
Which of the following is true ? [2016]
(a) A has higher rate of oxygen dissolution.
(b) B has higher rate of oxygen dissolution.
(c) Oxygen dissolution of both is the same.
(d) Both the lakes have same BOD.

Euro II norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled at ppm in diesel and ppm in petrol. [2017]
(a) 350; 150 (b) 150; 350
(c) 350; 250 (d) 150; 250

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-10) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Inhabitants close to very busy airports are likely to experience health hazards.
Reason : Sound level of jet aeroplanes usually exceeds 160 dB. [2003]

2-Assertion : Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.
Reason : Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides. [2003]

3-Assertion : Agricultural output increased
several times after introduction of DDT.
Reason : DDT was the first insecticide used on a wide scale.[2004]

4-Assertion : A suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
Reason : Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution caused by automobiles. [2005]

5-Assertion : Presently, the global atmosphere is warming up.
Reason : The depletion of stratospheric ozone layer has resulted in increase in ultraviolet radiations reaching the earth. [2005]

6-Assertion : Deforestation is one main factor contributing to global warming.
Reason : Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included under green house gases. [2006]

7-Assertion : UV radiation causes photodissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason : Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change. [2006]

8-Assertion : The concentration of methane in the atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.
Reason : Wetlands and rice fields are the major sources of methane. [2006]

9-Assertion (A) : Pollution is always caused by human activities.
Reason (R) : Pollution is not different from contamination. [2007]

10-Assertion (A) : Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone depletion.
Reason (R) : Ozone level decreases by as much as 67% every year. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Secondary succession takes place in recently denuded area. [2009]
Reason : It is caused due to baring of an area.

2-Assertion : Excess of nitrates in drinking water are harmful for infants. [2009]
Reason : Nitrates are responsible for blue baby syndrome.

3-Assertion : Water pollutants are measured by BOD.
Reason : If BOD is more, the water is polluted. [2013]

4-Assertion : Methane, component of green house gases, contributing to global warming is about 20 percent.
Reason : Introduction of multi-point fuel injection engines in automobiles has decreased methane content in the exhausts.[2005, 2015]

5-Assertion : Eutrophication shows increase in productivity in water. [2013, 2017]
Reason : With increasing eutrophication, the diversity of the phytoplankton increases.

AIIMS PREVIOUS YEARS BOTANY Question & Solution

CHAPTER-1: The Living World

Linnaeus system of classification is [1999]
(a) Natural (b) Artificial
(c) Phylogenetic (d) Progressive

The basic unit of classification is [2000]
(a) genus (b) species
(c) variety (d) subspecies

Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) Linnaeus [2000]
(b) Darwin
(c) Bentham and Hooker
(d) Aristotle

The usage of binomial names, for plant species was accepted by all after the publication of the work by [2001]
(a) Hooker (b) Linnaeus
(c) Bentham (d) Darwin

Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding an Institute and its location? [2004]

(a) National Institute of Virology – Pune

(b) National Institute of Communicable disease – Lucknow

(c) Central Drug Research Institute – Kasauli Institute

(d) National Institute of Nutrition – Mumbai

“Ordines Anomali” of Bentham and Hooker includes [2006]
(a) seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development.
(b) plants represented only in fossil state.
(c) plants described in the literature but which Bentham and Hooker did not see in original.
(d) a few orders which could not be placed satisfactory in the classification.

The system of classification based on evolutionary and genetic relationships among organisms, ignoring the morphological
similarities or differences, is called [2009]
(a) cladistics
(b) phenetics
(c) classical systematics
(d) new systematics

Scientific name of Mango plant is Mangifera indica (Linn.) Santapau. In the above name Santapau refers to [2012]
(a) Variety of Mango
(b) A taxonomist who proposed the present nomenclature in honour of Linnaeus
(c) A scientist who for the first time described Mango plant
(d) A scientist who changed the name proposed by Linnaeus and proposed present name

The classification of Linnaeus was mainly based on [2012]
(a) Sepals (b) Carpels
(c) Petals (d) Stamens

Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus? [2013]
(a) Species (b) Division
(c) Class (d) Family

Read the following statements
(i) Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
(ii) Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a few similar characters.
(iii) Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae.

(iv) Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. [2014]
Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

Choose the correct one [2015]
(i) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organism.
(ii) Dead organism does not grow.
(iii) Reproduction cannot be an all inclusiv defining characteristic of living organisms.
(iv) No non-living object is capable of replicating itself.
(v) Metabolism in a test tube is non-living.
(vi) Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) All except (v)
(c) All except (iii) (d) All of these

Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. [2017]
Column-I Column-II
A. Family I. tuberosum
B. Kingdom II. Polymoniales
C. Order III. Solanum
D. Species IV. Plantae
E. Genus V. Solanaceae
(a) A –IV; B –III; C –V; D –II; E –I
(b) A –V; B –IV; C –II; D –I; E –III
(c) A –IV; B –V; C –II; D –I; E –III
(d) A –V; B –III; C –II; D –I; E –IV

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

(1) Assertion: Living organisms are regarded as closed systems.
Reason: Energy of living organisms can not be lost or gained from external environment. [2002]

(2) Assertion: Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with classification of living organisms.
Reason: The aim of classification is to group the organisms. [2002]

Directions for (Q. 1) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1- Assertion : Taxon and category are different things.
Reason : Category shows hierarchical classification. [2013, 14]

CHAPTER2:Biological Classification

TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The symbiotic relationship of algae and fungus is found in [1997]
(a) lichen (b) mycorrhiza
(c) pneumatophore (d) bacteriophage

The virus that infects bacteria is called [1997]
(a) cyanophage (b) mycophage
(c) bacteriophage (d) none of these

Citrus canker is caused by [1997]
(a) bacterium (b) fungus
(c) alga (d) virus

Which of the following is a cyanobacterium ? [1997]
(a) Nostoc (b) Chara
(c) E. coli (d) Polysiphonia

Virus has [1998]
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either DNA or RN

Hormogonia are vegetative reproductive structure of [1998]
(a) Spirogyra (b) Ulothrix
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Yeast

Which is a unicellular fungus ? [1998]
(a) Yeast (b) E.coli
(c) Nostoc (d) Albugo

Bacterial cell wall is made up of [1999]
(a) xylan (b) chitin
(c) cellulose (d) murein

Cell wall is absent in [2000]
(a) Amoeba (b) Chara
(c) yeast (d) E. coli

Which of the following is a fungus? [2000]
(a) Nostoc (b) E. coli
(c) Yeast (d) Chara

Powdery mildews of crops are caused by [2001]
(a) bacteria (b) ascomycetes
(c) basidiomycetes (d) phycomycetes

Pullorum disease of poultry is caused by [2001]
(a) Mycobacterium (b) Salmonella
(c) Clostridium (d) Haemophilus

Viroids have [2003]
(a) single stranded RNA not enclosed by protein coat.
(b) single stranded DNA not enclosed by protein coat.

(c) double stranded DNA enclosed by protein coat.

(d) double stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat.

Myxomycetes are [2006]
(a) saprobes or parasites, having mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation.
(b) slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through
fragmentation or zoospores.
(c) prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular, saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission.
(d) eukaryotic, single-celled or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic, asexual reproduction by division of haploid individuals, sexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei.

Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three [2006]
(a) are pathogens (b) are saprobes
(c) bear ascocarps (d) bear basidiocarps

“Fairy rings” in lawns result from outward,spreading circles of mycelia of mushrooms producing, at their periphery, fruiting bodies called [2009]
(a) ascocarps (b) basidiocarps
(c) sorocarps (d) pseudocarps

Which one of the following statements is correct? [2010]
(a) Prions are the smallest free-living cells.
(b) The cell wall of Mycoplasmas is made up of amino sugars.
(c) Viroids consist of single-stranded RNA molecule.
(d) Rickettsiae lack cell wall.

Bacterial cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan, a complex of oligosaccharides and proteins. The oligosaccharide component consist of [2010]
(a) linear chain of alternating NAG and NAM linked by α (1 – 4) linkage.
(b) linear chains of alternating NAG and NAM linked by β (1 – 4) linkage.
(c) linear chain of glucose linked by β (1 – 4) linkage.
(d) linear chain of glucose linked by α (1 – 4) likage

Choose the correct names of the different bacteria according to their shapes. [2013]


(a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
(d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli

Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes? [2013]
(a) Puffballs and Claviceps
(b) Peziza and Alternaria
(c) Morchella and mushrooms
(d) Birds nest fungi and puffballs

Match column-I with column-II and select the option . [2014]
Column-I Column-II
(Classes of fungi) (Common name)
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
The correct combination is –
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I

Which of the following is correct about the slime mould ? [2015]
(i) Its thalloid body, Plasmodium has pseudopodia for locomotion and engulfing organic matter.
(ii) During unfavourable conditions Plasmodium differentiates and produces fruiting bodies, sporangium.
(iii) Spores posses no true cell wall.
(iv) They are dispersed by air current.
(v) Being extremely resistant, spores survive for many years.
(vi) Plasmodium can grow upto several feet.
Choose the answer from the following options
(a) (i),(ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(b) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(c) (i),(ii), (iii) and (vi)
(d) (ii),(iii) and (vi)

(i) Green algae occur in fresh water, brackish water, salt water.
(ii) Habitat of Brown algae-fresh water (rare), brackish water, salt water
(iii) Some red algae are found in fresh water, mostly occur in salt water, some are in brackish water.
(iv) Most of the red algae are multicellular.
(v) Red alga may occur in both well lighted regions close to water-surface and also at great depths in oceans where light penetration is little.
(vi) Cell wall of red algae consists of cellulose agar.
(vii) 2 – 8, equal and apical flagella in green algae [2015]

(a) All are correct
(b) All are false
(c) (i) and (vi) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct

Fungi are filamentous with the exception of “X” which is unicellular. Identify X. [2017]
(a) Yeast (b) Albugo
(c) Mucor (d) Lichen

Which of the following statements is not correct for viruses? [2017]
(a) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(b) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells.
(c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
(d) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA (never both DNA and RNA).

Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is incorrect? [2017]
(a) It is also called blue green algae.
(b) They are chemosynthetic heterotrophs.
(c) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies.
(d) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine or terrestrial bacteria

TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Q. 1-6) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: Viruses are not considered organism.
Reason: Viruses are nucleoproteins and lack cell organelle, etc. [1998]

2-Assertion : Bacteria have three basic shapes, i.e., round , rod, spiral.
Reason : Cocci and Bacilli may form clusters or chain of a definite length. [2000]

3-Assertion : Aflatoxins are produced by Aspergillus flavus.
Reason : These toxins are useful to mankind. [2000]

4-Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases. [2006]
Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of
fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.

5-Assertion : Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.
Reason : The outer face of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into the membrane lipids. [2006]

Assertion : Neurospora is commonly called water mould.
Reason : It belongs to basidomycetes fungi.[2007]

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) :

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Chemosynthesis is an autotrophic nutrition.
Reason : Chemoautotrophs contain chlorophyll pigments.

2-Assertion : TMV is a virus which causes mosaic disease.

Reason : TMV has RNA as genetic material. [2001, 2017]

CHAPTER-3:Plant Kingdom

Meiosis in Dryopteris takes place during [1997]
(a) spore formation
(b) gametic formation
(c) spore germination
(d) zygote formation

Sometimes a ladder like structure in Spirogyra is formed due to [1998]
(a) lateral conjugation
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) scalariform conjugation
(d) direct conjugation

In which group of the following would you place the plants having vascular tissue and lacking seeds? [1998]
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes

Largest ovule in plant kingdom are found in [1998]
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas
(c) Thuja (d) Gnetum

Plant material, which is used in culture medium is obtained from [1998]
(a) Cycas (b) coconut milk
(c) Pinus (d) mango

Which is a saprophytic angiosperm? [1998]
(a) Cuscuta (b) Neottia
(c) Agaricus (d) Yeast

Bryophytes do not possess [1999]
(a) vascular tissue
(b) gametophyte
(c) alternation of generation
(d) spores

The heart shaped fern prothallus is [1999]
(a) gametophyte (b) sporophyte
(c) saprophyte (d) gamete

In Dryopteris, the opening mechanism of sporangium is effectively operated by [1999]
(a) stalk (b) stomium
(c) annulus (d) peristome

13 celled male gametophyte of Selaginella has [2000]
(a) 12 cells of antheridium + 1 prothallial cell
(b) 10 cells of antheridium + 3 prothallial cell
(c) 9 cells of antheridium + 4 prothallial cell
(d) 8 cells of antheridium + 6 prothallial cell

Which of the following is found in algal zone of Cycas coralloid roots? [2000]
(a) Blue green algae (b) Red algae
(c) Diatoms (d) Brown algae

Sex organs in Funaria develop [2001]
(a) in protonema.
(b) outside capsule.
(c) in the axil of leaf.
(d) at the tip of gametophore.

In which portion of Cycas diploxylic vascular bundles are found ? [2001]
(a) Root (b) Stem
(c) Leaflet (d) Rachis and le

Funaria gametophyte is [2001]
(a) dioecious
(b) heteroecious
(c) autoecious
(d) monoecious and autoecious

Sometimes, the fern plant arises from fern prothallus without fertilization. This is an example of [2001]
(a) apospory (b) apogamy
(c) parthenocarpy (d) gametogenesis

Zygospore of Spirogyra at the time of meiosis is divided into 4 nuclei. How many nuclei degenerate out of these four ? [2001]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four

Cycas is [2001]
(a) monoecious (b) bisexual
(c) dioecious (d) hermaphr

The drug bellodona is obtained from [2001]
(a) Atropa (b) Opium
(c) Rauwolfia (d) Sola

Algae are useful because they [2002]
(a) purify the atmosphere
(b) are large in number
(c) are used in fermentation
(d) are used to study respiration

The plant body of Funaria is [2002]
(a) sporophyte
(b) gametophyte
(c) predominantly sporophyte with independent gametophyte
(d) predominantly gametophyte with dependent sporophyte.

Elaters help in dispersal of spores of [2002]
(a) Riccia (b) Marchantia
(c) Dryopteris (d) Funaria

The nature of megasporophyll of Cycas is similar to [2002]
(a) stamen (b) carpel
(c) sepal (d) petal

Which of the following helps in respiration of lichens? [2002]
(a) Isidia (b) Soredia
(c) Cyphella (d) Cephalodia

In Ulothrix, meiosis takes place in [2004]
(a) cells of the filament
(b) holdfast
(c) zygote
(d) zoospores

Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places because both [2004]
(a) require presence of water for fertilization.
(b) do not need sunlight for photosynthesis.
(c) depend for their nutrition on microorganisms which can survive only at low temperature.
(d) cannot compete with sun-loving plants.

In the following table identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and thecorresponding pathogen [2006]

Plants of which one of the following groups of genera are pollinated by the same agency?
(a) Triticum, Cocos, Mangifera [2006]
(b) Ficus, Kigelia, Casuarina
(c) Salvia, Morus, Euphorbia
(d) Bombax, Butea, Bauhinia

Which of the following match is correct? [2007]
Disease ……. Pathogen
(a) Wilt disease ……. Synchytrium
(b) Citrus canker …… Xanthomonas
(c) Red rot of sugarane ……. Ustilago
(d) Powdery mildew ……. Fusarium

People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it [2003, 2008]
(a) makes the food easy to digest.
(b) is rich in proteins.
(c) has antibiotic properties.
(d) restores the intestinal microflora

Botanical name of Sanjeevani is [2009]
(a) Selaginella chrysocaulos
(b) Selaginella bryopteris
(c) Selaginella chrysorhizos (d) None of the above

In Pinus, the third tier of embryonal cells from below is known as [2009]
(a) rosette tier (b) suspensor tier
(c) embryonal tier (d) free-nuclear tier

Which of the following is found in algal zone of Cycas coralloid roots? [2007, 2011]
(a) Blue green algae (b) Red algae
(c) Diatoms (d) Brown algae

Which among the following is a rootless plant? [2007, 2011]
(a) Nymphaea (b) Sagittaria
(c) Ceratophyllum (d) Vallisneria

Sporocarp is a reproductive structure of [2012]
(a) Some algae
(b) Some aquatic ferns having sori
(c) Angiosperms having spores
(d) Bryophytes

Coralloid roots of Cycas is distinguished from angiosperm roots by [2013]
(a) absence of pith
(b) having xylem tissue
(c) absence of algal zone
(d) presence of algal zone

If the cells of root in wheat plant have 42 chromosomes, then the no. of chromosome in the cell of pollen grain is [2014]
(a) 14 (b) 21
(c) 28 (d) 42

Match the following (2016)
Column-I Column-II
(Classes) (Examples)
A. Psilotopsida I. Dryopteris, Pteris,
Adiantum
B. Lycopsida II. Equisetum
C. Sphenopsida III. Selaginella
D. Pteropsida IV. Lycopodium
V. Psilotum

(a) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II

Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different groups of algae and choose correct option [2017]
(i) In chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d.
(ii) In phaeophyceae, laminarian is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b.
(iii) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin.

(a) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is incorrect
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is incorrect
(d) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are incorrect

Directions for (Qs. 1-6) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Mosses are evolved from algae.
Reason : Protonema of mosses is similar to some green algae. [2001]

2-Assertion : Coconut tree is distributed in coastal areas over a large part of the world.
Reason : Coconut fruit can float and get dispersed over thousands of kilometers before losing viability. [2004]

3-Assertion : The fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and animals.

Reason : Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water or on other organisms because they have a variety of pigments, including chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin

4-Assertion : Algae and fungi are classified as thallophytes.
Reason : They both are autotrophs. [2007]

5-Assertion : Conifer trees produce a large quantity of wind borne pollen grains.
Reason : The pollen grains have wings. [2007]

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Red algae contributes in producing coral reefs. [2004, 2011]
Reason : Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium carbonate over their walls.

2-Assertion: The peristome is a fringe of teeth-like projections found at the mouth of the capsule. [2004, 2011]
Reason: It may be of two types nematodontous and orthodontus.

3-Assertion : Members of phaeophyceae vary in colour from olive green to various shades of brown
Reason : Phaeophceae possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophysis. [2016]

CHAPTER -4:Animal Kingdom

Pouched mammals are known as [1997]
(a) prototherians (b) metatherians
(c) eutherians (d) therians

Sponges capture food with the help of [1997]
(a) pinacocytes (b) choanocytes
(c) trophocytes (d) theocytes

Chloragogen cells of earthworm are similar to which organ of vertebrates ? [1997]
(a) Liver (b) Lung
(c) Kidney (d) Spleen

Haemocoel is found in [1997]
(a) Hydra and Aurelia
(b) Taenia and Ascaris
(c) Cockroach and Pila
(d) Herdmania and Balanoglossus

Aquatic reptiles are [1997]
(a) ureotelic
(b) ureotelic on land
(c) ammonotelic
(d) uricotelic in water

Larva of house-fly lacks [1997]
(a) eyes (b) wings
(c) spiracles (d) none of th

Single filament of Nostoc without mucilage sheath is called as [1998]
(a) colony (b) mycelium
(c) trichome (d) hyphae

Organisms, attached to substratum generally possess [1998]
(a) radial symmetry
(b) asymmetrical body
(c) single opening of digestive canal
(d) cilia to create water current

Hydra recognizes its prey by [1998]
(a) nematocyst
(b) special organ
(c) chemical stimulus
(d) mechanical stimulus

The long bones are hollow and connected by air passage. They are characteristic of [1998]
(a) aves (b) mammalia
(c) reptilia (d) sponges

Aristotle’s lantern is found in [1998]
(a) Asteroidea (b) Echinoidea
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea

Sympathetic nerves in mammals arise from [1998]
(a) sacral region
(b) cervical region
(c) 3rd, 7th, 9th, 10th cranial nerves
(d) thoracico-lumbar region

Which of the following statement is true regarding corals ? [1999]
(a) Form branch colonies.
(b) Solitary or colonial.
(c) Grow as massive bodies.
(d) All of the above

Water current in Leucosolenia is produced by [1999]
(a) pinacocytes (b) choanocytes
(c) archaeocytes (d) collencytes

Which is the example of platyhelminthes ?[1999]
(a) Entamoeba (b) Plasmodium
(c) Wuchereria (d) Schistosoma

Paired spermathecae occur in Pheretima in which of the following segments ? [1999]
(a) 4, 5, 6, 7 (b) 5, 6, 7, 8
(c) 6, 7, 8, 9 (d) 3, 4, 5, 6

Weberian ossicles are found in [1999]
(a) frog (b) snakes
(c) fishes (d) birds

The vertebrae in birds are mostly [1999]
(a) procoelous (b) heterocoelous
(c) amphicoelous (d) acoelous

Basket star belongs to class [1999]
(a) Ophiuroidea (b) Echinoidea
(c) Crinoidea (d) Asteroidea

The egg case in female cockroach is formed by secretion of [2000]
(a) collaterial gland (b) mushroom gland
(c) conglobate gland (d) prothoracic gland

Power of regeneration in sponges is due to [2000]
(a) theocytes (b) archaeocytes
(c) amoebocytes (d) sclerocytes

The poisonous fluid present in nematocyst of Hydra is [2000]
(a) toxin (b) venom
(c) hematin (d) hypnotoxin

Life cycle of Taenia is [2000]
(a) monogenetic (b) digenetic
(c) polygenetic (d) hexogenetic

Pigment haemocyanin is found in [2000]
(a) chordata (b) annelida
(c) porifera (d) mollusca

Antedon belongs to which of the following class? [2000]
(a) Asteroidea (b) Ophiuroidea
(c) Crinoidea (d) Echinoidea

Scales in Chondrichthyes are [2000]
(a) placoid (b) ctenoid
(c) cycloid (d) all of these

Which of the following snake is not poisonous? [2000]
(a) Naja- Naja (b) Python
(c) Hydrophis (d) Bungarus

Birds are [2000]
(a) cold blooded (b) homeothermal
(c) poikilothermal (d) homeopoiesis

Which of the following substances is at its lowest level in fish food ? [2000]
(a) Actin (b) Myosin
(c) Cholesterol (d) Tissue fluid

How many ovaries are found in birds ? [2000]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Many

Gemmule formation in sponges are useful in [2001]
(a) asexual reproduction
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) parthenocarpy

The places of first, second and third moulting of Ascaris larva are [2002]
(a) soil, alveoli, lung
(b) liver, soil, stomach
(c) soil, lung, liver
(d) soil, intestine, lung

What is left, when bath sponges dries up?[2002]
(a) Spicules (b) Hold fast
(c) Spongin fibres (d) Tentacles

Hydra receives impulses and stimuli through [2002]
(a) nerve cells (b) sensory cells
(c) neuron cell (d) nematocysts

Which of the following are uricotelic animals? [2002]
(a) Rohu, Frog
(b) Camel, Frog
(c) Lizard, Crow
(d) Eagles, Earthworm

In Entamoeba histolytica, the presence of chromatid bodies is characteristic of [2002]
(a) precystic stage
(b) trophozoite stage
(c) mature binucleate stage
(d) both (a) and (b)

Just as Xenopsylla is a Yersenia pestis, so is [2003]
(a) Glossina palpalis to Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Culex to Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Homo sapiens to Taenia solium
(d) Phlebotomus to Leishmania donovani

Which of the following feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion? [2004]
(a) Nephridia (b) Ventral nerve cord
(c) Cephalization (d) Antennae

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to salt water balance inside the body of living organisms? [2005]
(a) When water is not available camels do not produce urine but store urea in tissues.
(b) Salmon fish excretes lot of stored salt through gill membrane in fresh water.
(c) Paramecium discharges concentrated salt solution by contractile vacuoles.
(d) The body fluids of fresh water animals are generally hypotonic to surrounding water.

Which one of the following groups of structures/organs have similar function? [2005]
(a) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat and contractile vacuole in Amoeba.
(b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubules in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat.
(c) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog and clitellum of earthworm.
(d) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of cockroach and tube feet of starfish.

Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn? [2005]
(a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body.
(b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae.
(c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton.
(d) Cephalothorax and trachae.

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon? [2006]

All mammals without any exception are characterized by [2006]
(a) viviparity and biconcave red blood cells.
(b) extra-abdominal testes and a fourchambered heart.
(c) heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
(d) a muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands.

Which of the following does not come under the class mammals? [2007]
(a) Flying fox (b) Hedgehog
(c) Manatee (d) Lamprey

Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion? [2008]
(a) Nephridia (b) Ventral nerve cord
(c) Cephalization (d) Antennae

Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the following is the correct example of the type mentioned? [2008]
(a) Morphallaxis – Regeneration of two transversely cut equal pieces of a Hydra into two small hydras
(b) Epimorphosis – Replacement of old and dead erythrocytes by the new ones.

(c) Morphallaxis – Healing up of a wound in the skin.
(d) Epimorphosis – Regeneration of crushed and filtered out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarians.

Which statement best explains why invertebrates regenerate lost tissue more readily than most vertebrates do? [2009]
(a) Invertebrates contain specialized cells that produce the hormones necessary for this process.
(b) Invertebrate cells exhibit a higher degree of uncontrolled cell division than vertebrate cells do.
(c) Invertebrate animals reproduce asexually, but vertebrate animals reproduce sexually.
(d) Invertebrate animals have more undifferentiated cells than vertebrate animals have.

Which of the following is correctly matched? [2009]
(a) Human -Renal portal system
(b) Earthworm – Closed circulatory system
(c) Cockroach – Nephridia
(d) None of the above

Which set of terms would most likely be used in a description of the nervous system of chordates? [2009]
(a) Brain, dorsal nerve cord, highly developed receptors
(b) Brain, fused ganglia, ventral nerve cord
(c) No brain, fused ganglia, tympana
(d) No brain, nerve net, modified neurons

Which one of the following statements is not correct? [2010]
(a) All echinoderms are viviparous.
(b) Roundworm has no circulatory system.
(c) In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present.
(d) In cartilaginous fishes, fertilization is internal.

Ticks and mites are actually [2010]
(a) arachnids (b) crustaceans
(c) insects (d) myriapods

“Portuguese man of war” is [2012]
(a) Soldier of world war I
(b) Portuguese soldier
(c) A sponge
(d) A polymorphic, colonial, coelenterata

Which are exclusively viviparous ? [2012]
(a) Bony fishes
(b) Cartilagenous fishes
(c) Sharks
(d) Whales

Given are the four matches of phyla with their characteristic cells [2013]
A. Coelenterata – Nematocytes
B. Porifera – Choanocytes
C. Ctenophora – Solenocytes
D. Platyhelminthes – Nephrocytes
Mark the option that has both correct matches
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) C and D (d) B and D

Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are included in class________________ of phylum______________ . [2014]
(a) Reptilia; Annelida
(b) Insecta; Arthropoda
(c) Insecta; Annelida
(d) Reptilia; Arthropoda

The above diagram shows the germs layer. The animals having structures shown in the figures A and B are respectively called [2014]
(a) Diploblastic, Triploblastic
(b) Triploblastic, Diploblastic
(c) Diploblastic, Diploblastic
(d) Triploblastic, Triploblastic

Given below are pie diagrams A, B and C related to proportionate number of species of major taxa of invertebrates, vertebrates and plants respectively. Critically study and fill in the blanks I, II, III and IV [2015]

(a) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-Angiosperms
(b) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Angiosperms, IV-Fungi
(c) I- Hexapoda, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-Angiosperms
(d) I- Turtles, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-Angiosperms

Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) In Torpedo, the electric organs are capable of generating strong electric shock to paralyze the prey.
(ii) Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal anal and caudal fins in swimming.
(iii) Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales.
(iv) Birds are poikilothermic animals.
(v) The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of milk producing mammary glands by which the young ones are nourished. [2015]
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; (iv), (v) are false
(b) (i), (ii) and (v) are true; (iii) and (iv) are false
(c) (i), (iv) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iii) are false
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true

Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below.
Column- I ________________Column -II
(Organism)________________(Excretory structures)

A. Cockroach____________ I. Nephridia
B. Cat fish_______________ II. Malpighian
tubules
C. Earthworm ___________III. Kidneys
D. Balanoglossus ________IV. Flame cells
E. Flatworm V. Proboscis gland [2017]
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV

In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and phylum are not correctly matched ?

Directions for (Qs. 1-9) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Cold blooded animals do not have fat layer.
Reason : Cold blooded animals use their fat for metabolic process during hibernation. [1997]

2-Assertion : Birds have one ovary.
Reason : This reduces the body weight for flight. [1999]

3-Assertion: Lateral line system is found in fishes and aquatic larval amphibians.
Reason: Lateral line system has receptor of sensory cells derived from ectoderm. [2002]

4-Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.
Reason : Bats and whales have four-chambered heart. [2003]

5-Assertion : Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental animals.
Reason : Eggs of most mammals, including humans, are of centrolecithal type. [2003]

6-Assertion : All birds, except the ones like koel (cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest during night time (day time for nocturnal).
Reason : Koel lays its eggs in the nests of tailor bird. [2003]

7-Assertion : The honey bee queen copulates only ones in her life time.
Reason : The honey bee queen can lay fertilized as well as unfertilized eggs. [2004]

8-Assertion : Torsion can be seen in ctendium.
Reason : Ctenidium acts as the respiratory organ. [2007]

9-Assertion : Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine.
Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source of intestinal infections. [2004, 2008]

Directions for (Qs. 1-6) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Sponges have body organization of “cellular level”.
Reason : There is some physiological division of labour. [2009]

2-Assertion : Acraniata is a group of organisms which do not have distinct cranium.
Reason : It includes small marine forms without head. [1997, 2012]

3-Assertion : Sponges belong to Porifera.
Reason : Sponges have canal system.[1998, 2014]

4-Assertion : The duck-billed Platypus and the spiny ant-eater, both are egg-laying animals yet they are grouped under mammals.
Reason : Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. [2005, 2015]

5-Assertion : Typhlosole increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine.
Reason : Typhlosole, present in the intestine, is the characteristic feature of cockroach. [2016]

6-Assertion : Ambulacral system plays a major role in locomotion of echinoderm.
Reason : Hydraulic pressure of fluid and contraction of muscle of tube feet make possible movement of echinoderm. [2010, 2017]

CHAPTER-5:Morphology of Flowering Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Fern character of Cycas is [1997]
(a) coralloid root
(b) tap root
(c) parallel venation
(d) circinate venation

The desert plants in order to tolerate water stress show [1997]
(a) sunken stomata
(b) reduced leaves
(c) well developed root system
(d) all of these

Perisperm is [1997]
(a) remnant of endosperm
(b) persistant nucellus
(c) remnant of embryo
(d) part of endosperm

In moss capsule, the number of peristome whorls are [1998]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

A mature ligule, having a prominent basal portion, is called [1998]
(a) glossopodium (b) rhizophore
(c) trichome (d) None of these

Inflorescence of Ficus is [1999]
(a) spike (b) hypanthodium
(c) raceme (d) verticillaster

The edible part of cauliflower is [2000]
(a) inflorescence (b) leaf
(c) flower (d) stem

Most reduced form of stem is found in [2000]
(a) bulb (b) rhizome
(c) tree (d) stem

In Opuntia, spines are modification of [2000]
(a) stem (b) root
(c) leaf (d) flower

Clove is [2001]
(a) flower bud (b) axillary bud
(c) thalamus (d) ovule

Pollinia are found in [2001]
(a) wheat (b) madar
(c) mango (d) banana

Monocarpic plants flower [2001]
(a) once (b) twice
(c) many times (d) never

Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria are found in [2001]
(a) cotton (b) gram
(c) mustard (d) wheat

In which family (9) + 1 androecium condition is found ? [2001]
(a) Malvaceae (b) Papilionaceae
(c) Solanaceae (d) Poaceae

Which of following type of anther is found in Malvaceae? [2002]
(a) Monothecous (b) Dithecous
(c) Polythecous (d) Without thecous

Potato and sweet potato [2004]
(a) have edible parts which are homologous organs.
(b) have edible parts which are analogous organs.
(c) have been introduced in India from the same place.
(d) are two species of the same genus.

The sugarcane plant has [2004]
(a) dumb-bell shaped guard cells
(b) pentamerous flowers
(c) reticulate venation
(d) capsular fruits

The family containing mustard and its main characters are [2005]
(a) Brassicaceae – Tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, siliqua type fruit
(b) Brassicaceae – Pentamerous flowers, many stamens, pentacarpellary gynoecium, capsule type fruit
(c) Solanaceae – Pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, berry type fruit
(d) Poaceae – Trimerous flowers, three stamens, monocarpellary gynoecium, caryopsis type of fruit

Velamen present in orchids help in [2007]
(a) absorbing water from support
(b) respiration
(c) absorption of moisture from air
(d) synthesizing food

Composite fruit develops from [2007]
(a) single ovary (b) inflorescence
(c) apocarpous ovary (d) pericarp

If the anthers are fused together forming a tubular structure while the filaments remain free, the condition is found in which one of the following family? [2009]
(a) Malvaceae (b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Solanaceae (d) Asteraceae

Floral diagram fails to indicate [2009]
(a) epiphylly and epipetaly
(b) aestivation and placentation
(c) position of ovary on the thalamus
(d) cohesion of carpels and stamens

Aggregate fruit develops from [2009]
(a) syncarpous ovary
(b) multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary
(c) unilocular ovary
(d) multicarpellary, apocarpous ovary

The presence of cilia, an oral groove, and food vacuoles, and the absence of chloroplasts in a unicellular organism indicate that the organism carries on [2009]
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) autotrophic nutrition
(c) extracellular digestion
(d) heterotrophic nutrition

Of the following, which instrument is most commonly used to observe the external features of a grasshopper’s abdomen? [2009]
(a) Ultracentrifuge
(b) Microdissection instrument
(c) Dissecting microscope
(d) Electron microscope

In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynoecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as a [2010]
(a) dichogamy (b) herkogamy
(c) heterogamy (d) monogamy

Which of following type of anther is found in Malvaceae? [2011]
(a) Monothecous (b) Dithecous
(c) Polythecous (d) Without thecous

Parachute type dispersal occurs in [2011]
(a) tomato (b) mustard
(c) pea (d) cotton

Prickles of rose are [2012]
(a) Modified leaves
(b) Modified stipules
(c) Exogenous in origin
(d) Endogenous in origin

Which of the following are not characteristic features of fabaceae? [2013]
(a) Tap root system, compound leaves and raceme inflorescence.
(b) Flowers actinomorphic, twisted aestivation and gamopetalous.
(c) Stamens 10, introrse, basifixed, dithecous.
(d) Monocarpellary, ovary superior and bent stigma.

Which one of the following is correctly matched? [2014]
(a) Onion – Bulb
(b) Ginger – Sucker
(c) Chlamydomonas – Conidia
(d) Yeast – Zoospores

Read the following statements.
(i) Gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level.

(ii) Ovary is half-inferior.
(iii) Examples are plum, rose and peach.
Which condition of flowers is being described by the above statements ? [2014]
(a) Hypogyny (b) Perigyny
(c) Epigyny (d) None of these

Which one of the option is correct? [2015 ]

Seeds are adaptively important because [2015]

  1. they maintain dormancy
  2. they protect young plants during vulnerable stages
  3. they store food for young plants, and facilitate dispersal
    (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these

Match the following-
List-I____________________ List-II
A. Coleorhiza ……………….I. Development of sporophyte directly from gametophyte without intervention of gametes
B. Apogamy …………………II. Development of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without the involvement of reduction division.

C. Indusium …………………..III. An unbranched columnar stem with a crown of leaves.
D. Caudex……………………. IV. Protective covering of radicle
V. Protective structure of a sorus. [2016]

(a) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III
(c) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V

Which of the following is a modified stem for the protection of plants from browsing animals? [2017]
(a) Tendrils (b) Thorns
(c) Rhizome (d) Tuber

Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess venation, while venation is the characteristic of most monocotyledons. [2017]
(a) reticulate and parallel
(b) parallel and reticulate
(c) reticulate and perpendicular
(d) obliquely and parallel

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

  1. Assertion : In hemianatropous ovule, the funicle lies parallel to body of ovule. Reason : Here, body of ovule is rotated by 90°. [1999]

2-Assertion : Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds.
Reason : Potatoes multiply by tubers, apple by cutting etc. [2001]

3-Assertion : Ginger has a prostrate growing rhizome.
Reason : Shoot growth is not effected by gravity. [2004]

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : In fabaceae family monocarpellary, unilocular ovary is present. [2010]
Reason : In fabaceae, placentation is parietal.

2-Assertion : Apical meristem of root is subterminal.
Reason : At the terminal end of root, root cap is present. [2014]

3-Assertion : A simple leaf has undivided lamina.
Reason : Leaves showing pinnate and palmate venation have various types of incisions. [2016]

CHAPTER-6:Anatomy of Flowering Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Cycas stem shows [1997]
(a) porous wood (b) manoxylic wood
(c) pycnoxylic wood (d) ring porous wood

Aerenchyma is found in [1997]
(a) parenchyma (b) xylem
(c) phloem (d) sclerenchyma

Which of the following tissue is absent in vascular bundles of monocot stem ? [1997]
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem
(c) Cambium (d) All of these

Cork cambium is a [1999]
(a) lateral meristem
(b) apical meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) primitive meristem

Endodermis is a part of [1999]
(a) cortex (b) pericycle
(c) medulla (d) epidermis

Lateral root in higher plants arise from [1999]
(a) cortex (b) pericycle
(c) epidermis (d) endodermis

Cambium of root is an example of [2000]
(a) apical meristem
(b) intercalary meristem
(c) primary meristem
(d) secondary meristem

Which of the following is enucleate at maturity? [2000]
(a) Companion cell (b) Meristematic cell
(c) Parenchyma (d) Sieve tube cell

Porous wood contains [2001]
(a) vessels (b) tracheids
(c) fibres (d) parenchyma

Passage cells are found in [2002]
(a) endodermis (b) pericycle
(c) cortex (d) epiblema

Fascicular cambium is the cambium of vascular bundle of [2002]
(a) monocot stem (b) dicot stem
(c) monocot leaf (d) dicot leaf

Mesophyll is usually differentiated in [2002]
(a) monocot leaf (b) isobilateral leaf
(c) dorsiventral leaf (d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

In a dicotyledonous stem, the sequence of tissues from the outside to the inside is [2003]
(a) phellem-pericycle-endodermis-phloem
(b) phellem-phloem-endodermis-pericycle
(c) phellem-endodermis-pericycle-phloem
(d) pericycle-phellem-endodermis-phloem

The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a [2003]
(a) site for storage of food which is utilized during maturation.
(b) reservoir of growth hormones.
(c) reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem.
(d) region for absorption of water.

In a plant organ which is covered by periderm and in which the stomata are absent, some gaseous exchange still takes place through [2004]
(a) aerenchyma (b) trichomes
(c) pneumatophores (d) lenticels

Companion cells in plants are associated with [2004]
(a) vessels (b) sperms
(c) sieve elements (d) guard cells

Cork cambium results in the formation of cork which becomes impermeable to water due to the accumulation of [2004]
(a) resins (b) suberin
(c) lignins (d) tannins

Which one of the following statements pertaining to plant structure is correct? [2005]
(a) Cork lacks stomata but lenticels carry out transpiration.
(b) Passage cells help in transfer of food from cortex to phloem.
(c) Sieve tube elements possess cytoplasm but no nuclei.
(d) The shoot apical meristem has a quiescent centre.

In which one of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes ? [2005]
(a) Endosperm of wheat
(b) Endosperm of castor
(c) Palisade cells in leaf
(d) Root hairs

Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have [2006]
(a) vascular bundles arranged in a ring
(b) cambium for secondary growth
(c) vessels with elements arranged end to end
(d) cork cambium

In the sieve elements, which one of the following is the most likely function of P-proteins?[2006]
(a) Deposition of callose on sieve plates.
(b) Providing energy for active translocation.
(c) Autolytic enzymes.
(d) Sealing mechanism on wounding.

Two cross-sections of stem and root appear simple, when viewed by naked eye. But under microscope, they can be differentiated by [2009]
(a) exarch condition of root and stem
(b) endarch condition of stem and root
(c) endarch condition of root and exarch condition of stem
(d) endarch condition of stem and exarch condition of root

If a stem is girdled [2012]
(a) Root dies first
(b) Shoot dies first
(c) Both die together
(d) None of the above would die

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) Uneven thickening of cell wall is characteristic of sclerenchyma. [2013]
(B) Periblem forms cortex of the stem and the root.
(C) Tracheids are the chief water transporting elements in gymnosperms.
(D) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at maturity.
(E) The Commercial cork is obtained from Quercus suber.
(a) A and D only (b) B and E only
(c) C and D only (d) B, C and E only

Sclerenchyma usually_______ and ________protoplasts. [2014]
(a) live, without (b) dead, with
(c) live, with (d) dead, without

T.S. of dicot leaf passing through the midrib is given below, certain parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the correct option.[2015]

(a) A – Epidermis, B – Spongy parenchyma, C – Palisade parenchyma, D – Stomata, E – Guard cells, F – Phloem, G – Metaxylem, H
– Protoxylem

(b) A – Epidermis, B – Palisade parenchyma, C – Spongy parenchyma, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Stoma, F – Phloem, G –
Metaxylem, H – Bundle sheath
(c) A – Epidermis, B – Palisade parenchyma, C – Spongy parenchyma, D – Stomata, E – Guard cells, F – Epidermis, G – Xylem, H – Phloem
(d) A – Epidermis, C – Palisade parenchyma, C – Spongy parenchyma, D – Stomata, E – Guard cells, F – Phloem, G – Metaxylem, H
– Protoxylem

Contractile tissues have the following features
(i) Mesodermal in origin
(ii) They contain stretch receptors.
(iii) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them
(iv) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal
Which of the above are characteristics of sphincters? [2015]
(a) All the four
(b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)

Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is [2016]
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Phellogen


In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the __________________and the metaxylem lies towards the_______________ of the organ. [2017]
(a) centre; periphery
(b) periphery; centre
(c) periphery; periphery
(d) centre; centre

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-8) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
correct.

1-Assertion : Thick cuticle is mostly present in disease resistant plants.
Reason : Disease causing agents cannot grow on cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle. [1997]

2-Assertion: Cambium is a lateral meristem and cause growth in width.
Reason: Cambium is made up of fusiform and ray initials in stem. [1998]

3-Assertion : Higher plants have meristematic regions for indefinite growth.
Reason : Higher plants have root and shoot apices. [1999]

4-Assertion : In collateral vascular bundles, phloem is situated towards inner side.
Reason : In monocot stem, cambium is present. [2000]

5-Assertion : Collenchyma is thick walled dead tissue.
Reason : Collenchymatous cells show thickenings of pectin. [2002]

6-Assertion: The two cotyledons in seed are embryonic leaves.
Reason: The embryo contains radicle and plumule. [2002]

7-Assertion : In angiosperms, the conduction of water is more efficient because their xylem has vessels. [2006]
Reason : Conduction of water by vessel elements is an active process with energy supplied by xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.

8-Assertion : In woody stems, the amount of heart wood continues to increase year after year.
Reason : The cambial activity continues uninterrupted. [2007]

9-Assertion : Petroplants produce large amount of latex.
Reason : The latex contains long chain hydrocarbons. [2007]

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Vessels are more efficient for water conduction as compared to tracheids. [2010]
Reason : Vessels are dead lignified

2-Assertion: Bulliform cells are useful in the unrolling of leaf.
Reason: Bulliform leaves store water. [2011]

3-Assertion : In stem, pericycle take active part in secondary growth.
Reason : In dicots, pericycle has the capacity to produce lateral roots. [2013]

CHAPTER-7:Structural Organisation in Animals

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In frog, gastrulation process involves [1997]
(a) epiboly (b) emboly
(c) invagination (d) all of these

Structure which remains unchanged during metamorphosis of frog’s tadpole is [1997]
(a) lung (b) heart
(c) nervous system (d) intestine

Which gland plays a key role in metamorphosis of frog ? [1999]
(a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid
(c) Thymus (d) Pancreas

Major protein of connective tissue is [2001]
(a) myosin (b) collagen
(c) melanin (d) keratin

Outer covering of cartilage is called [2001]
(a) perichondrium (b) periosteum
(c) endosternum (d) periton

The protoplasmic segment of a striated muscle fibre is termed as [2001]
(a) sarcoplasm (b) sarcomere
(c) neuromere (d) metamere

Sharpey’s perforating fibres are related with [2002]
(a) heart contraction
(b) muscle relaxation
(c) fixing of teeth
(d) none of these

The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as [2006]
(a) squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) ciliated epithelium
(d) cubical epithelium

Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant sized tadpoles, if they are [2006]
(a) administered antithyroid substance like
thiourea.

(b) administered large amounts of thyroxine.
(c) reared on a diet rich in egg yolk.
(d) reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and glucose.

Which of the following type of cell junction is not found in animal tissues ? [2013]
(a) Adhering junction (b) Tight junction
(c) Gap junction (d) Plasmodesmata

Identify the figure with its correct function

(a) Areolar connective tissue – Serves as a support framework for epithelium
(b) Adipose tissue – Store fats and act as heat insulators
(c) Dense regular tissue – Provide flexibility
(d) Dense irregular tissue – Provide strength and elasticity [2014]

Which of the following statement about cell junctions is false? [2015]
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials.
(ii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells.
(iii) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules.

(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (v) (d) None of these

i. The shape of the cells may vary with the function they perform
ii. Human RBC is about 7.0 􀁐m in diameter
iii. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities
iv. Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state [2015]
(a) All are correct
(b) Only I and II are correct
(c) Only IV is correct
(d) All are wrong

The figure given below shows the head region of cockroach. Identify A to F.[2016]

(a) A- Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxilla, D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(b) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, D-Maxilla, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(c) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, D-Maxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum
(d) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium

Male cockroach can be identified from the female by the presence of [2017]
(a) long antennae
(b) wingless body
(c) elongated abdomen
(d) anal styles

The sensory papillae in frogs are associated with [2017]

(a) smell (b) hearing (c) respiration (d) touch

In earthworms, setae are present in all segments except [2017]
(a) first and the last segments
(b) first segment and the clitellum
(c) first segment
(d) clitellum and last segments

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

  1. Assertion : Cartilage and bone are rigidconnective tissues.
    Reason : Blood is a connective tissue [2001]

Directions for (Q. 1) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

  1. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
    Reason : They are found in walls of blood vessels and air sacs of wings. [2017]

CHAPTER-8:Cell : The Unit of Life

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In many bacteria, cell membrane is invaginated and folded to form [1997]
(a) pili (b) cristae
(c) flagella (d) mesosome

Cristae helps in [1998]
(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis
(c) transpiration (d) guttation

In nucleoplasm, a spherical body attached to a particular chromosome on a definite position is called [1998]
(a) nucleolus (b) karyolymph
(c) plasmid (d) reticulum

Which of the following is responsible for mechanical support and enzyme transport ? [1999]
(a) Dictyosome (b) Cell membrane
(c) E. R. (d) Mitochondria

Which of the following is present between cell walls of the plant cells ? [1999]
(a) Lomasome (b) Microsome
(c) Lysosome (d) Middle lamella

Rough E. R. differs from smooth E. R. due to the presence of [2000]
(a) DNA (b) nucleus
(c) ribosome (d) enzyme

Electron microscope was invented by [2000]
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Knoll and Ruska
(c) Pasteur
(d) Schwann and Schleiden

Double membrane structure of cell are [2000]
(a) nucleus (b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria (d) all of these

Hydrolytic enzymes are found in [2000]
(a) peroxisomes (b) lysosomes
(c) lepdosomes (d) lomasomes

Chromosomes with equal arms are called [2000]
(a) metacentric (b) telocentric
(c) acentric (d) polycentric

A prokaryotic cell lacks [2001]
(a) true nucleus
(b) nuclear membrane
(c) membrane bound organelles
(d) all of the above

Which of the following is a single membranous structure ? [2001]
(a) Lysosome (b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast

In bacteria, site of respiration is [2001]
(a) mesosome (b) episome
(c) plasmid (d) cytoplasm

Which of the following organelle is related with photorespiration? [2002]
(a) Peroxisome (b) Nucleus
(c) Cell wall (d) Lysosome

The phagocytosis was first of all seen by [2002]
(a) Huxley (b) Haeckel
(c) Metchnikoff (d) Darwin

A chromosome with centromere at one end is called [2002]
(a) telocentric (b) metacentric
(c) excentric (d) apocentric

Plasmodesmata connections help in [2003]
(a) cytoplasmic streaming.
(b) synchronous mitotic divisions.
(c) locomotion of unicellular organisms.
(d) movement of substances between cells.

DNA is present in [2004]
(a) chromosomes and dictyosomes
(b) chloroplasts and lysosomes
(c) mitochondria and chloroplasts
(d) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which one is wrong? [2005]
(a) Lysosomes are double membraned vesicles budded off from Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes.
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport, synthesis and secretion.
(c) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein synthesizing machinery.
(d) Sphaerosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesis and storage of lipids.

What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts? [2006]
(a) Presence of pigments.
(b) Possession of thylakoids and grana.
(c) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids.
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process.

In prokaryotes, chromatophores are [2006]
(a) specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells.
(b) structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism.
(c) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.
(d) internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria.

Which of the following is responsible for the mechanical support, protein synthesis and enzyme transport? [2007]
(a) Cell membrane
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Dictyosome
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

“Omnis-cellula-e-cellula” was given by[2007]
(a) Virchow (b) Hooke
(c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Brown

Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, are found in [2005, 2008]
(a) mitochondria and inherited via egg
cytoplasm

(b) lysosomes and peroxisomes
(c) Golgi bodies and’ smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) plastids and inherited via male gamete

What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts ? [2008]
(a) Presence of pigments.
(b) Possession of thylakoids and grana.
(c) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids.
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process.

Molecules that are too large to pass through the pores of a cell membrane may enter the cell by a process known as [2009]
(a) hydrolysis (b) pinocytosis
(c) cyclosis (d) synthesis

Three morphological forms of golgi complex are [2012]
(a) Lamellae, tubules and vesicles
(b) Cisternae, tubules and vesicles
(c) Cisternae, tubules and lamellae
(d) Granum, thalykoids and vesicles

Which chromosome may lost during cell division? [2012]
(a) Giant chromosome
(b) Acentric chromosome
(c) Polycentric chromosome
(d) Telocentric chromosome

Choose the incorrect match [2013]
(a) Nucleus — RNA
(b) Lysosome — Protein synthesis
(c) Mitochondria — Respiration
(d) Cytoskeleton — Microtubules

Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous structure formed by the extension of the plasma membrane into the cell is known as
polysome.
(ii) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of glycoproteins.
(iii) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole biosphere.
(iv) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes are not considered as part of endomembrane system. [2016]
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-6) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Power house of cell is mitochondria.
Reason : ATP is produced in mitochondria. [2001]

2-Assertion : Cell wall is not found in animal cell.
Reason : Animal cells are covered by cell membrane. [2001]

3-Assertion: Organisms are made up of cells.
Reason: Cells are structural unit of living organisms. A cell keeps its chemical composition steady within its boundary. [2002]

4-Assertion: Specialization of cells is useful for organism.
Reason: It increases the operational efficiency of an organism. [2002]

5-Assertion: The number of cells in a multicellular organism is inversely proportional to size of body.
Reason: All cells of biological world are alive. [2002]

6-Assertion : Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.
Reason : There are three principal types of protein filaments-microfilaments, microtubules and intermediate filaments, which constitute the cytoskeleton. [2006]

Directions for (Qs. 1-4) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Lipids present in the outer and inner side of the bilayer membrane are commonly different.
Reason : Oligosaccharides are attached to external surface as well as inner surface of a biomembrane. [2009]

2-Assertion : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi autonomous organelles.
Reason : They are formed by division of preexisting organelles as well as contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.
[2005, 2014]

3-Assertion : A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.
Reason : A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins. [2003, 2008, 2015]

4-Assertion : Centrosomes and centrioles are related to each other.
Reason : Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles.[2016]

CHAPTER-9:Biomolecules

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Which is the derivative of amino acid ? [1999]
(a) Epinephrine (b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone (d) All of these

High energy bond of ATP are present in between [1999]
(a) C – C (b) C – O
(c) C – N (d) O – P

Who coined the term zymase? [1999]
(a) Pasteur (b) Buchner
(c) Kuhne (d) Sumner

Apoenzyme is [2000]
(a) protein (b) lipid
(c) sugar (d) vitamin

Gamma globulins are synthesized inside [2000]
(a) liver
(b) kidney
(c) bone marrow
(d) lymph and lymphoid tissues

Proteins are [2002]
(a) polysaccharides (b) polyamides
(c) polynucleotides (d) polyglycol

The nicotinamide is synthesized in our body from [2002]
(a) tryptophan (b) tryosine
(c) valine (d) alanine

An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of [2003]
(a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
(b) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
(c) hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
(d) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Which of the following set of three items are not true as each set belongs to the category mentioned against them [2005]
(a) Lysine, glycine, thiamine – Amino acids
(b) Myosin, oxytocin and gastrin – Hormones
(c) Rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase – Enzyme
(d) Optic nerve, occulomotor, vagus – Sensory nerves

The figure given below show three velocitysubstrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What do the curves a, b and c depict respectively? [2006]

(a) a – normal enzyme reaction,
b – competitive inhibition,
c – non-competitive inhibition.
(b) a – enzyme with an allosteric modulator added,
b – normal enzyme activity,
c – competitive inhibition.
(c) a – enyzme with an allosteric stimulator,
b – competitive inhibitor added,
c – normal enzyme reaction.
(d) a – normal enzyme reaction,
b – non-competitive inhibitor added,
c – allosteric inhibitor added.

Which of the following contain β -l, 4 linkage? [2007]
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose
(c) Lactose (d) Fructose

Which statement is true? [2007]
(a) Adenine has 4 nitrogen atoms.
(b) Cytosine has 3 nitrogen atoms.
(c) Guanosine has 3 nitrogen atoms.
(d) Uracil has 5 nitrogen atoms.

Michaelis constant Km is equal to [2010]

Alpha-keratin is a protein present in [2010]
(a) blood (b) skin
(c) lymph (d) eggs

Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct? [2010]
(a) Both of them are of plant origin.
(b) Both of them are polymers.
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine.
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules.

Which of the following type of enzyme is not matched correctly with the molecule that it breaks down? [2013]
(a) Amylase–starch
(b) Lipase–starch
(c) Protease–proteins
(d) Disaccharidase–sugars

The diagram illustrates energy changes in an enzyme controlled reaction. [2013]

Which of the following represents the lowering of the activation energy?
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) Z – Y

Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate? [2014]
(a) Maltose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Lactose
(d) Ribose 5 – phosphate

The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the reaction reaches to [2014]
(a) Zero (b) 2Vmax​​​​​​​​
(c) ½ Vmax​​​​​​​​ (d) ¼ Vmax​​​​​​​​

The following diagrams represent the nitrogenous bases of nucleic acid molecules. Identify the correct combination [2015]

(a) A-uracil, B-adenine, C-thymine, D-guanine, E- cytosine
(b) A – uracil, B-guanine, C-cytosine, D-adenine, E-thymine
(c) A-uracil, B – guanine, C-thymine, D-adenine, E-cytosine
(d) A-thymine, B-guanine, C-uracil, D-adenine, E-cytosine.

The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green -gram -phosphatase. What does the graph indicate ? [2015]

(a) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration
(b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture
(c) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex
(d) At higher substrate-concentration the pH increases.

Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at ______temperature and _________ pressure. [2016]
(a) high, low (b) low, low
(c) low, high (d) high, high

Refer the given structure of adenylic acid. In this identify A. [2016]

(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Phosphate bond
(c) Ester bond (d) Ionic bond

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Enzymes have active sites and substrates have reactive sites on their surface respectively.
Reason : Active and reactive sites push the enzyme and substrate molecules away from each other.

2-Assertion : Vegetable oils are fats which are present in plant cells in soluble form.
Reason : Vegetable oils occur only in cells of embryo. [2007]

Directions for (Qs. 1-10) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Human diet should compulsorily contain glycine, serine and tyrosine. [2010]
Reason : Essential amino acids can not be synthesized in the human body.

2-Assertion : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. [2010]
Reason : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure

3-Assertion : The amino acid glycine comes under the category of nonessential amino acids.
Reason : This is due to the fact that it can not be synthesised in the body. [2011]

4-Assertion : Allosteric enzymes show feed back inhibition.
Reason : The inhibitor is competitive. [2012]

5-Assertion : Coenzymes serve as co-factors in a number of different enzyme catalyzed reactions.
Reason : Coenzymes and prosthetic groups are cofactors. [2013]

6-Assertion : Enzymes lower the activation energy.
Reason : A substrate molecule can be acted upon by a particular enzyme. [2014]

7-Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides a strong evidence in favour of common ancestory of living beings. [2015]
Reason : Genetic code is universal.

8-Assertion : A co-enzymes or metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
Reason : A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme. [2016]

9-Assertion : Glycosidic bonds are formed by dehydration.
Reason : In polysaccharides, individual monosaccharide is linked by glycosidic bond. [2016]

10-Assertion : In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt before G–C rich parts.
Reason: In between A and T there are three H–bond, whereas in between G and C there are two H-bonds. [2017]

CHAPTER-10:Cell Cycle and Cell Division

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The correct sequence in cell cycle is [1999]
(a) S – G1 – G2 – M (b) S – M – G1 – G2
(c) G1 – S – G2 – M (d) M1 – G1 – G2 – S

Colchicine prevents the mitosis of cells at which of the following stage? [2000]
(a) Anaphase (b) Metaphase
(c) Prophase (d) Interphase

Spindle fibres of mitotic cells are made up of [2001]
(a) tubulin (b) actin
(c) myosin (d) collagen

When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage called [2005]
(a) zygotene (b) pachytene
(c) diplotene (d) diakinesis

Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle? [2008]
(a) Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
(b) Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
(c) Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast.
(d) Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosomes.

During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively? [2009]
(a) Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)
(b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I)
(c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)
(d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I)

Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do not have [2011]
(a) plasma membrane
(b) cytoskeleton
(c) mitochondria
(d) plastids

The stage of meiosis where centromere separate [2013]
(a) metaphase I (b) metaphase II
(c) anaphase I (d) anaphase II

During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at [2014]
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene

How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells? [2016]
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 64

Match the description (given in column I) with correct stage of prophase I (given column II) and choose the correct option. [2017]
Column I Column II
A. Chromosomes are _________________________________I. Pachytene
moved to spindle
equator
B. Centromere splits and _________________________________ II. Zygotene
chromatids move apart
C. Pairing between _________________________________ III. Anaphase
homologous
chromosomes takes
place
D. Crossing between _________________________________ IV. Metaphase
homologous
chromosomes
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: Meiosis results in production of haploid cells.
Reason: Synapses occurs during leptotene. [1998]

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Meiosis II is known as equational or homotypic division. [2010]
Reason :Meiosis II produces same number of chromosome in cell

2-Assertion : Interphase is resting stage.
Reason : The interphase cell is metabolically inactive. [2012]

2-Assertion : During zygotene, chromosomes show bivalent stage.
Reason : Bivalent is half the number of chromosomes. [2013]

3-Assertion : The stage between two mitotic divisions is called interkinesis.
Reason : Interkinesis is generally short lived. [2016]

4-Assertion : Diplotene is characterized by the presence of chiasmata.
Reason : Diplotene can last for months and years in oocytes of some vertebrates. [2016]

CHAPTER-11:Transport in Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Translocation of organic materials in plants is explained by [1997]
(a) active transport
(b) transpiration pull
(c) inhibition theory
(d) mass flow hypothesis

The main function of phloem is translocation of [1998]
(a) food (b) water
(c) mineral (d) air

In rainy season, door gets swelled due to [2001]
(a) imbibition (b) diffusion
(c) transpiration (d) respiration

Which of the following helps in ascent of sap? [2007]
(a) Root pressure (b) Transpiration
( c) Capillarity (d) All of these

Hydroponics is [2007]
(a) nutrient less culture
(b) water less culture
(c) soilless culture
(d) none of these

During Na+ – K + pump [2010]
(a) 3Na + and 2K + are transported
(b) 1Na + and 2K + are transported
(c) 3 Na + and 3K + are transported
(d) Depends on requirement of cell

Excessive loss of water causes wilting of leaves, it can be prevented by : [2012]
(a) Keeping the plant in bright light
(b) Spraying the plant with alcohol
(c) Applying vaseline on the leaf surface
(d) Adding high amounts of fertilizers to the soil

Water potential of pure water and its solution are [2013]
(a) 0 and 1
(b) 0 and 0
(c) 0 and more than one
(d) 0 and less than 1.

In which method of transport in plasma membrane does not require carrier molecule? [2014]
(a) Active transport
(b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Simple diffusion
(d) Na + – K + pump

Seed increase in its volume by the adsorption of water through [2014]
(a) Osmosis (b) Plasmolysis
(c) Imbibition (d) Diffusion

Minerals are known to enter the plant root by means of a number of mechanisms, including all
except one of the following. Which one of the following is NOT a mechanism for moving minerals into roots? [2015]
(a) Foliar feeding (b) Active transport
(c) Proton (H+ ) pump (d) Cation exchange

A botanist discovered a mutant plant that was unable to produce materials that form casparian
(a) unable to transport water or solutes to the leaves.
(b) unable to use its sugar as a sugar sink.
(c) able to exert greater root pressure than the normal plant.
(d) unable to control amounts of water and solutes it absorbs.

If a cell A with D.P.D. 4 bars is connected to cell B, C, D whose O.P. and T.P. are respectively 4 and 4, 10 and 5 and 7 and 3 bars, the flow of water will be [2015]
(a) A and D to B and C
(b) A to B, C and D
(c) B to A, C and D
(d) C to A, B and D

A boy is studying transport of a certain type of molecules into cell. He finds that transport slows down when the cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy production. Under normal circumstances, the molecules studied by the boy is probably transported by [2016]
(a) simple diffusion
(b) osmosis
(c) active transport
(d) facilitated diffusion

Which of the following statements is/are not incorrect? [2017]
(i) Water and minerals, and food are generally moved by a mass or bulk flow system.
(ii) Bulk flow can be achieved either through a positive hydrostatic pressure gradient or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.
(iii) The bulk movement of substances through the conducting tissues of plants is called translocation.
(iv) Xylem translocates organic and inorganic solutes, mainly from roots to the aerial parts of the plants.
(v) Phloem translocates water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones, from the leaves to other parts of the plants.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iv) and (v)
(d) (ii) and (v)

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Waxy and cutin coating on plant parts reduce the transpiration.
Reason : These adaptation are found in xerophytes. [1999]

2-Assertion : Water and mineral uptake by root hairs from the soil occurs through apoplast until it reaches endodermis.
Reason : Casparian strips in endodermis are suberized.

3-Assertion :When the ambient temperature is high and soil contains excess of water, the plants tend to lose water in the form of droplets from lenticels
Reason : Root pressure regulates the rate of loss of water form lenticels. [2006]

Directions for (Qs.1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Upward movement of water is called ascent of sap.
Reason : Upward movement of water occurs through xylem and phloem. [2013]

2-Assertion : Long distance flow of photo assimilates in plants occurs through sieve tubes.
Reason : Mature sieve tubes have parietal cytoplasm and perforated sieve plates. [2012, 2015]

3-Assertion : Light is very important factor in transpiration.
Reason : Light induces stomatal opening and darkness closing of stomata. Therefore, transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark. [1999, 2015]

CHAPTER-12:Mineral Nutrition

Leghaemoglobin helps in [2007]
(a) nitrogen fixation
(b) protecting nitrogenase from O2
(c) destroys bacteria
(d) transport of food in plants

Which of the following is correct set of micronutrient for plants? [2007, 2011]
(a) Mg, Si, Fe, Cu, Ca
(b) Cu, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
(c) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
(d) Mo, Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca

In glycolysis, glucose molecule is converted into: [2011]
(a) PEP (b) RuBP
(c) Acetyl CoA (d) Pyruvic acid

Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth? [2012]
(a) Ca (b) Mn
(c) Zn (d) Cu

Which element plays an important role in nitrogen fixation? [2012]
(a) Mn (b) Mo
(c) Zn (d) Cu

Match column-I and Column-II and choose the correct option given below the columns.[2013]

Column-I ____________________________________Column-II
(Element)…………………………………………………… (Function)
A. Calcium __________________________________ I. Required for ionic- balance.
B. Boron ____________________________________ II. Essential for constitution of nucleic acid
C. Phosphorus _______________________________ III. Required for absorption of calcium.
D. Chlorine ____________________________________ IV. Required to activate respiratory enzyme.
E. Manganese _________________________________ V. Required for synthesis of mitotic spindle.
(a) A – 1; B – 2; C – 3; D – 4; E – 5
(b) A – 5; B – 4; C – 3; D – 2; E – 1
(c) A – 4; B – 1; C – 5; D – 3; E – 2
(d) A – 5; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1; E – 4

Which of the following is an INCORRECT match of essential element and function? [2014]
(a) Manganese – structural component of chlorophyll.
(b) Calcium – component of the middle lamella.
(c) Zinc – enzyme activator.
(d) Iron – component of ferredoxin.

Which of the following is the mismatched pair? [2016 ]
Mineral elements _______________________Form that is absorbed by plant
(a) Nitrogen _____________________________ NO3
(b) Phosphorus ________________________ H2PO4
(c) Sulphur _____________________________ H 2 SO 4
(d) Iron ________________________________ Fe3+

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Plants lack excretory organs.
Reason : Plant usually absorb essential nutrients and lead a passive life. [1997]

2-Assertion : Plants absorb sulphur in the form of sulphate ions.
Reason : Sulphur bacteria are required for the formation of sulphate. [2007]

2-Assertion : Deficiency of sulphur causes chlorosis in plants.
Reason : Sulphur is a constituent of chlorophyll, protein and nucleic acids. [2004, 2014]

CHAPTER-13:Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

In C4 plants, the first carbon dioxide acceptor is [1997]
(a) pyruvate
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate
(c) ribulose biphosphate
(d) ribulose 5, phosphate

In photosynthesis, splitting of water and release of oxygen occurs during [1998]
(a) photolysis (b) red drop
(c) Pasteur effect (d) Calvin cycle

Blackman’s law of limiting factor is applied to [2001]
(a) respiration (b) transpiration
(c) photorespiration (d) photosynthesis

Hill reaction occurs in [2003]
(a) high altitude plants
(b) total darkness
(c) absence of water
(d) presence of ferricyanide

Which one of the following categories of organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis? [2004]
(a) Red algae
(b) Photosynthetic bacteria
(c) C4 plants with Kranz anatomy
(d) Blue green algae

What is PAR range? [2007]
(a) 200 nm – 800 nm (b) 400 nm – 700 nm
(c) 350 nm – 550 nm (d) 600 nm – 100 nm

Through the use of oxygen-18 (heavy oxygen), scientists have found that the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from molecules of [2009]
(a) carbon dioxide (b) water
(c) glucose (d) chlorophyll

Select the incorrect statement [2011]
(a) C4 pathway for CO2 fixation were discovered by Hatch and Slack
(b) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(c) Addition of sodium carbonate in water retards photosynthetic rate in vallisneria
(d) Phloem is the principal pathway for translocation of solutes

The family in which many plants are C4 type [2012]
(a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Crucifereae (d) Gramin

In the electron transport chain during terminal oxidation, the cytochrome, which donates electrons to O2 is [2012]
(a) Cytochrome-b (b) Cyto-C
(c) Cyto-a3 (d) Cyto-f

Which one does not differ between a C3 and a C4 plant? [2013]
I. Initial CO2 acceptor.
II. Extent of photorespiration.
III. Enzyme catalyzing reaction that fixes CO2.
IV. Presence of Calvin cycle.
V. Leaf anatomy.
(a) I and V (b) IV
(c) II and III (d) II

The total requirement of ATP & NADPH for each molecule of CO2 fixed & reduced in photosynthesis in the Calvin cycle is [2014]
(a) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH
(b) 2 ATP & 3 NADPH
(c) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH
(d) 4 ATP & 3 NADPH

Consider the following statements regarding photosynthesis. [2015]
(A) ATP formation during photosynthesis is termed as photophosphorylation.
(B) Kranz anatomy pertains to leaf.
(C) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH occurs during Calvin cycle.
(D) In a chlorophyll molecule, magnesium is present in phytol tail. Of the above statements.
(a) A and B are correct
(b) C and D are correct
(c) A and C are correct
(d) A and D are correct

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-9) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: C4 pathway of CO2 fixation is found in some tropical plants.
Reason: In this pathway, CO2 is fixed by 3C compound. [1998]

2-Assertion : Mitochondria helps in photosynthesis
Reason : Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction. [1999]

3-Assertion: Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing wavelength longer than 700 nm.
Reason: Here reaction centre is B-890. [2002]

3-Assertion : Rhoeo leaves contain anthocyanin pigments in epidermal cells.
Reason : Anthocyanins are accessory photosynthetic pigments.

4-Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species.
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved. [2004]

5-Assertion : C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway.
Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants. [2005]

6-Assertion : The atmospheric concentration of CO2 at which photosynthesis just compensates for respiration is referred to as CO2
compensation point.
Reason : The CO2 compensation point is reached when the amount of CO2 uptake is less than that generated through respiration because the level of CO2 in the atmosphere is more than that required for achieving CO2 compensation point. [2005]

7-Assertion : Under conditions of high light intensity and limited CO2 supply, photorespiration has a useful role in protecting
the plants from photo-oxidative damage.
Reason : If enough CO2 is not available to utilize light energy for carboxylation to proceed, the excess energy may not cause damage to plants. [2006]

8-Assertion : Photosynthetically C 4 plants are less efficient than C3 plants. [2006]
Reason : The operation of C4 pathway requires the involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.

9-Assertion : Dark reaction is purely enzymatic reaction. [2007]
Reason : It occurs only in absence of light.

Directions for (Qs.24-30) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Dark reaction occurs only at night in the stroma of chloroplast.
Reason : CO2 fixation occurs only during C3 cycle. [2009]

2-Assertion : Amaranthus and sugarcane are called as Hatch & Slack plants.
Reason : One glucose is formed by fixation of 6 CO2 in the plants. [2010]

3-Assertion : D.C.M.U. is a photosynthetic inhibitor. [2010]
Reason : D.C.M.U. inhibits a photolysis of water.

4-Assertion: The stromal thylakoids are rich in both PS I and PS II.
Reason: The stroma membranes are rich in ATP synthetase. [2011]

5-Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species.
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved. [2012]

6-Assertion : Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate fixes one molecule of CO2.
Reason : Three molecules of NADPH and two ATP are required for fixation of one molecule of CO2. [2013]

7-Assertion: Six molecules of CO2 and twelve molecules of NADPH+ + H+ and 18 ATP are used to form one hexose molecule.
Reason: Light reaction results in formation of ATP and NADPH2. [2002, 2015]

CHAPTER-14:Respiration in Plants

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Glycolysis occurs in [2000]
(a) mitochondria (b) chloroplast
(c) cytoplasm (d) peroxisome

Anaerobic respiration, after glycolysis is also called as [2002]
(a) fermentation (b) fragmentation
(c) restoration (d) multiplication

In glycolysis, glucose molecule is converted into [2002]
(a) PEP (b) RuBP
(c) acetyl CoA (d) pyruvic acid

Photorespiration in C3 plants starts from[2003]
(a) phosphoglycerate
(b) phosphoglycolate
(c) glycerate
(d) glycine

Which of the following is the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle? [2007]
(a) Acetyl CoA
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Citric acid

Pyruvate kinase enzyme catalyses [2010]
(a) first irreversible step of glycolysis
(b) second irreversible step of glycolysis
(c) third irreversible step of glycolysis
(d) fourth irreversible step of glycolysis

An enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is [2012]
(a) Succinate dehydrogenase
(b) Lactate dehydrogenase
(c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(d) Malate dehydrogenase

Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? [2014]
(a) Fructose 1, 6 – bisphosphate
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Glucose – 6 – phosphate

Which of the following representation correctly explain the function of mitochondrion? [2015]

Refer the figure and answer the question.

Choose the correct names of P, Q, R, and S. [2015]

By which of the following complex, proton is pumped to reach ATP synthase to participate in ATP synthesis?
(a) Cytochrome b6f
(b) Cytochrome c oxidase
(c) Cytochrome a – a3
(d) Cytochrome bc

Which of the following statements (i to v) regarding glycolysis are correct.
(i) It is ten enzymatic reactions that convert a six-carbon molecule to a three carbon pyruvate and result in a net gain of 2 ATP
molecules.
(ii) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form one molecule of pyruvic acid.
(iii) Glucose is phosphorylated to give rise to glucose – 6 – phosphate by the activity of the enzyme phosphofructokinase.
(iv) The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Morrison, and J. Parnas and is often referred to as the EMP
pathway.
(v) ATP is utilized at two steps: first in the conversion of glucose into glucose 6- phosphate & second in the conversion of
fructose – 6- phosphate to fructose 1, 6-disphosphate. [2016]
(a) (i), (iv) and (v) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv)

Refer the given equation and answer the question.
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102 CO2 + 98H2 O + Energy
The R.Q of above reaction is [2017]
(a) 1 (b) 0.7
(c) 1.45 (d) 1.62

In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is produced during the [2017]
(a) reduction of acetyldehyde to ethanol.
(b) oxidation of glucose.
(c) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA.
(d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP.

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Stomata are absent in submerged hydrophytes.
Reason : Respiration occurs by means of air chambers in submerged plants. [1997]

Directions for (Qs.1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose completely breaks into CO2 and H2O.
Reason : In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP. [2009]

2-Assertion : The inner membrane of mitochondria contains systems involving electron transport.
Reason : The mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Kreb’s cycle. [2013]

3-Assertion : Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.
Reason : Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm. It is common in aerobic/anaerobic respiration. [2002, 2014]

CHAPTER-15:Plant Growth and Development

MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS

In plant, auxin synthesis occurs in [1997]
(a) cortex
(b) xylem
(c) phloem
(d) root and shoot tips

Which of the following hormone induces cell division ? [1997]
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin (d) Trypsin

Which is a weedicide ? [1998]
(a) IAA (b) 2,4-D
(c) IBA (d) NAA

Which of the following is gaseous hormone ? [1998]
(a) Auxin (b) Ethylene
(c) Cytokinin (d) GA

A plant cell has potential to develop into a full plant. This is called [1998]
(a) totipotency (b) gene cloning
(c) tissue culture (d) regeneration

Which of the following induces dormancy ? [1999]
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Abscisic ac

The plant hormone controlling fruit ripening is [1999]
(a) IAA (b) GA
(c) ABA (d) Ethylene

Induction of cell division and delay in senescence is done by [2001]
(a) cytokinins (b) auxins
(c) GA (d) CoA

Curling of tendrils is due to [2001]
(a) thigmotropism (b) phototropism
(c) chemotropism (d) nyctinasty

Bud dormancy can be induced by [2002]
(a) IAA (b) GA
(c) ABA (d) ethyle

Avena curvature test is a bioassay for examining the activity of [2006]
(a) auxins (b) gibberellins
(c) cytokinins (d) ethyle

Induction of cell division and delay in senescence is done by [2011]
(a) Cytokinins (b) Auxins
(c) GA (d) CoA

Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on [2005, 2012]
(a) Rate of cell division
(b) Production of hydrolyzing enzymes
(c) Synthesis of abscisic acid
(d) Absorption of water through hard seed coat.

Study the following statements. [2013]
I. “X” hormone promotes root growth and root hair formation thus helping the plants to increase their absorption surface.
II. “Y” hormone induces flowering in mango and also promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep plants and hence
helping leaves or upper parts of shoot above water.
III. “Z” hormone inhibits the seed germination, increase the tolerance of plant to various stresses, play import in seed development, maturation and dormancy.
Identify the correct names of hormones marked as ‘X’, ‘Y’ & ‘Z’.
(a) Y = ABA; X = Auxin; Z = GA
(b) Z = GA; X = Auxin; Y = C2H4
(c) Y = Auxin; X = C2H4; Z = GA
(d) Y = C2H4; X = C2H4; Z = ABA

Identify the correct and incorrect statements from the following.
(i) 17,500 new cells are produced per hour by a single maize root apical meristem.
(ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen tube is measured.
(iii) The growth of the leaf is measured in term of volume.
(iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by upto 3,50,000 times. [2016]

(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct and (iv) is incorrect.
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct and (iii) is incorrect.
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct and (i), (iv) are incorrect.
(d) (i), (iv) are correct and (ii), (iii) are incorrect.

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-4 : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Dark period plays more important part in flowering than light period.
Reason : Flowering occurs in short-day plant if the dark period is interrupted by light break. [2013]

2-Assertion : Photomodulation of flowering is a phytochrome regulated process.
Reason : Active form of phytochrome (PFR) directly induces floral induction in shoot buds. [2015]

3-Assertion (A) : Vernalization is acceleration of subsequent flowering by low temperature treatment.
Reason (R) : Site of vernalization is apical meristem. [2015]

4-Assertion : Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages.
Reason : Auxins promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits. [2017]

CHAPTER-16:Digestion and Absorption

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Tocopherol stands for [1997]
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vitamin [1997]
(a) A (b) B
(c) E (d) C

The contraction of gall bladder is due to [1998]
(a) gastrin (b) secretin
(c) cholecystokinin (d) enterokinase

The function of rennin is [1999]
(a) vasodilation
(b) reduce blood pressure
(c) degradation of angiotensinogen
(d) none of the above

Liver in our body stores [1999]
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) All of these

Vitamin C is also called as [2000]
(a) ascorbic acid (b) glutamic acid
(c) aspartic acid (d) enolic acid

Brunner’s glands are present in [2001]
(a) duodenum (b) oesophagus
(c) ileum (d) stomach

Curdling of milk in small intestine takes place due to [2002]
(a) rennin (b) trypsin
(c) chymotrypsin (d) ptyalin

Which of the following has minimum pH?[2002]
(a) Bile (b) Saliva
(c) Gastric juice (d) Pancreatic juice

Which of following teeth are lophodont? [2002]
(a) Incisor and canine
(b) Premolar and molar
(c) Canine and premolar
(d) Premolar and incisor

Wharton’s duct is the duct of [2002]
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Sublingual gland
(c) Submaxillary gland
(d) Pancreatic gland

Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to
(a) vitamin A toxicity [2003]
(b) kidney stones
(c) hypercholesterolemia
(d) urine laden with ketone bodies

Which one of the following pairs of the cells with their secretion is correctly matched? [2006]
(a) Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
(b) Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans –
Secretion that decreases blood sugar level.
(c) Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolysis nucleic acids.
(d) Sebaceous glands – A digestive enzyme
that hydrolysis nucleic acids

Which match is true? [2007]
Vitamin deficiency ___________________________Vitamin________________ Source
disease

(a) Severe bleeding ……………………………………..Tocopherol …………………..Milk, egg
(b) Anaemia…………………………………………………. Ascorbic………………………. Lemon, acid orange
(c) Night blindness………………………………………… Retinol ………………………..Carrot, milk
(d) Sterility …………………………………………………….Calciferol………………………… Milk, butter

A child took sugar cane and sucked its juice. Regarding this which of the following match is correct? [2007]

Substrate of enzyme ____________Enzyme secretion _______________Site of formed __________________Products
(a) Proteins……………………………………….Pepsin…………………………………… Duodenum…………………………….Polypeptides
(b) Starch…………………………………………… Amyase …………………………………Salivary …………………………………Glucose
glands
(c) Lipids ……………………………………………Lipase ………………………………………..Pancreas…………………………………. Fat
globules
(d) Sucrose………………………………………… Invertase ……………………………………Duodenum ……………………………..Glucose +
Fructose

Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion are correctly matched? [2008]
(a) Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
(b) Alpha cells – Secretion of of (Nutrition) Langerhans that islets decreases blood
(c) Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids
(d) Sebaceous – A secretion that glands evaporates for cooling

Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier against [2010]
(a) loss of heat from the body
(b) loss of essential body fluids
(c) loss of salts from the body
(d) entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environment

The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is [2010]
(a) scurvy (b) rickets
(c) xerophthalmia (d) pellagra

What is the average fat content of buffalo milk? [2010]
(a) 7.2% (b) 4.5%
(c) 9.0% (d) 10.9%

Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because when compared to flesh of other animals, fish contains [2010]
(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids
(b) saturated fatty acids
(c) essential vitamins
(d) more carbohydrates and proteins

Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body, is based on the phenomenon of [2010]
(a) total internal reflection
(b) interference
(c) diffraction
(d) polarization

Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of [2010]
(a) khesari dal (b) mustard oil
(c) polished rice (d) mushrooms

The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is [2010]
(a) 280 (b) 290
(c) 300 (d) 310

Parotid salivary glands are present [2012]
(a) Below the tongue
(b) Below the cheeks
(c) In the angle between two jaws
(d) Below the eye orbits

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-funcitonal, what is likely to happen? [2015]
(a) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
(b) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
(c) Steapsin will be more effective
(d) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed
by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

A healthy person eats the following diet – 5 gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get? [2014, 2016]
(a) 144 (b) 126
(c) 164 (d) 112

Which of the following statement is true ? [2017]
(a) Pepsin cannot digest casein.
(b) Trypsin can digest collagen.
(c) Pepsin cannot digest collagen.
(d) Chymotrypsin can digest casein.

Directions for (Q. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Scurvy is caused by deficiency of vitamin.
Reason : Deficiency of ascorbic acid causes scurvy. [2001]

Directions for (Qs.1-6 : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : In the condition of obstructive jaundice, large amounts of unabsorbed fats are eliminated out of the body.
Reason : Entry of bile into the small intestine is prevented during obstructive jaundice. [2009]

2-Assertion : Pancreatic amylase digest starch to maltose. [2010]
Reason : Pancreatic amylase breaks the peptide bond of protein.

2-Assertion : Trypsin helps in blood digestion of predator animals.
Reason : Trypsin hydrolyzes fibrinogen. [2011]

3-Assertion : Lipases of bile help in the emulsification of fats.
Reason : Lipases can break large fat droplets into smaller ones. [2011]

4-Assertion : In the condition of obstructive jaundice, large amounts of unabsorbed fats are eliminated out of the body.
Reason : Entry of bile into the small intestine is prevented during obstructive jaundice. [2015]

5-Assertion : Starch is hydrolysed by ptyalin to maltose.
Reason : Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose to lactose. [2016]

6-Assertion : Water and electrolytes are almost fully absorbed in the large intestine.
Reason : In large intestine, haustral contractions (slow segmenting movements) roll the forming faeces over and over, causing absorption of water and electrolytes. [2017]

CHAPTER-17:Breathing and Exchange

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Oxidative breakdown of respiratory substrates with the help of O2 is called as [1997]
(a) fermentation
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) R. Q.
(d) aerobic respiration

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) [2004]
(a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae.
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus).
(c) is an acute form of asthma.
(d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians

The diagram below represents part of a capillary in a specific region of the human body. The region labeled X represents part of [2009]

(a) a glomerulus (b) an alveolus
(c) a villus (d) the liver

In humans, the concentration of carbon dioxide in the plasma [2009]
(a) causes increased production of hydrochloric acid.
(b) regulates gastric acid production by forming carbonic acid.
(c) regulates breathing rate by its effect on the medulla.
(d) causes inflammation of the tissues of the bronchial tubes.

If the respiratory rate of ‘A’ is 35 breaths/min and tidal volume 185 cc/breath and of ‘B’ is 25 breaths/min and tidal volume 259 cc/breath then [2009]
(a) Pulmonary ventilation of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is same.
(b) Alveolar ventilation of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is same.
(c) Pulmonary ventilation of ‘A’ is greater than ‘B’.
(d) Alveolar ventilation of ‘A’ is greater than ‘B’.

Oxyhaemoglobin can transport [2010]
(a) 8 ml of CO2/100 ml blood
(b) 5 ml of CO2/100 ml blood
(c) 3 ml of CO2/100 ml blood
(d) 2 ml of CO2/100 ml blood

Which of the following match is correct?[2011]
(a) Emphysema: reduction of surface area of alveoli and bronchi
(b) Pneumonia: occupational disease with asbestos
(c) Silicosis: inflammation of alveoli
(d) Asthma: excessive secretion of bronchial mucus

Volume of air breathed in and out during normal breathing is called [2012]
(a) Vital capacity (b) IRV
(c) ERV (d) Tidal volume

Much developed larynx of human male is called [2012]
(a) Aristole’s lanttern (b) Syrinx
(c) Adam’s apple (d) Muller’s organ

The presence of CO2 in blood will lower pH because CO2 combines with____, with the rate of reaction increased by_____ . [2013]
(a) H 2 O to form H+ and HCO3, carbonic anhydrase
(b) H 2 O to form only HCO3 , carbonic anhydrase
(c) H 2 O to form only H+, carbonic ions
(d) H+ to form HCO3 , oxyhaemoglobin

Approximately seventy percent of carbondioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs [2014]
(a) as bicarbonate ions
(b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(c) by binding to RBC
(d) as carbamino – haemoglobin

During oxygen transport the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells because in tissue [2016]
(a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low
(b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high
(c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low
(d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-2) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Many visitors to the hills suffer from skin and respiratory allergy problems.
Reason : Conifer trees produce a large quantity of wind-borne pollen grains. [2003]

2-Assertion : Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is originated in China.
Reason : China is the most populated country of the world. [2003]

Directions for (Qs.1-3) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates near the organ tissue due to Bohr effect and oxygen is released. [2010]
Reason :Increased CO2 concentration reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

2-Assertion: In mammals, complex respiratory system has developed. [2011]
Reason: Mammalian skin is impermeable to gases

3-Assertion : Inspiration occurs due to muscular relaxation.
Reason : During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle contract simultaneously. [2012]

CHAPTER-18:Body Fluids and Circulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Anti-serum contains [1997]
(a) antigens (b) antibodies
(c) leucocytes (d) RBCs

Which enzyme induces lysis of fibrinogen to fibrin during fibrinolysis ? [1997]
(a) Plasmin (b) Thrombin
(c) Fibrin (d) Trypsin

Which of the following blood group can be given to any patient ? [1999]
(a) A (b) B
(c) O (d) AB

Which of the following chamber of heart has the thickest muscular wall ? [1999]
(a) Left auricle (b) Left ventricle
(c) Right ventricle (d) Right auricle

In which of the following pairs the two items mean one and the same thing? [2004]
(a) Malleus – Anvil
(b) SA node – Pace maker
(c) Leucocytes – Lymphocytes
(d) Haemophilia – Blood cancer

An artificial pace maker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients [2004]
(a) having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries.
(b) having a very high blood pressure.
(c) with irregularity in the heart rhythm.
(d) suffering from arteriosclerosis.

The figure below shows an angioplasty of the coronary blood vessel. Which one of the following statements correctly describes, what is being done? [2006]

(a) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous growth that is being removed.
(b) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked.
(c) It is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened.
(d) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed.

Hirudin is [2006]
(a) A protein produced by Hordeum vulgare, which is rich in lysine.
(b) A toxic molecule isolated from Gossypium hirusutum, which reduces human fertility.
(c) A protein produced from transgenic Brassica napus, which prevents blood clotting.
(d) An antibiotic produced by a genetically engineered bacterium, Escherichia coli.

The component of blood which prevents its coagulation in the blood vessels is [2007]
(a) haemoglobin (b) plasma
(c) thrombin (d) heparin

Thickening of arteries due to cholesterol deposition is [2007]
(a) arteriosclerosis (b) rheumatic heart
(c) blood pressure (d) cardiac arrest.

Which one of the following is a matching pair? [2003, 2008]
(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole.
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibres-Initiation of the heart beat.

A malfunction of the lymph nodes would most likely interfere with the [2009]
(a) release of carbon dioxide into the lymph
(b) filtering of glucose from the lymph
(c) release of oxygen into the lymph
(d) filtering of bacteria from the lymph

Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called [2010]
(a) carotid arteries (b) hepatic arteries
(c) coronary arteries (d) pulmonary arteries

A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately, which one of the blood groups readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion? [2010]
(a) O, Rh (b) O, Rh+
(c) AB, Rh (d) AB, Rh+

With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct? [2010]
(a) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time.
(b) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood.
(c) White blood cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only.
(d) The blood has more platelets than WBC.

Which of the following organs is the blood bank? [2011]
(a) Heart (b) Lungs
(c) Spleen (d) Liver

Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its value/count in a normal human adult? [2003, 2008, 2011]
(a) Urea 5-10 mg / 100 ml of blood
(b) Blood sugar (fasting) – 70-100 mg/100 ml
(c) Total blood volume – 5-6
(d) ESR in Wintrobe method – 9-15 mm in males and 20-34 mm in females

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? [2013]

(a) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(b) Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(c) Complex QRS – One complete pulse
(d) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction

Which of the following statements are wrong? [2013]
(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and liver.
(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced by bone marrow.
(iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and detoxification of toxins of protein origin.
(iv) The important function of lymphocytes is to produce antibodies.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only

The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person, the P-wave represents the :

(a) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(b) Beginning of the systole
(c) End of systole
(d) Contraction of both the atria [2014]

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as [2015]
(a) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(b) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(c) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(d) free CO 2 in blood plasma

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(b) Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(c) Complex QRS – One complete pulse
(d) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-6) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Muscle fibres of SA node possess the lowest rhythmicity among all cardiac muscles.
Reason : Due to this fact, it can initiate excitatory waves at the highest rate. [1999]

2-Assertion : Saline water is not given to patients of hypertension.
Reason : Saline water can cause vomiting and may drop blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac arrest. [2000]

3-Assertion : Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure.
Reason : Blood pressure is measured by sphygmomanometer. [2000]

4-Assertion: WBCs accumulate at site of wounds by diapedesis.
Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium. [2002]

5-Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration. [2005]

6-Assertion (A) : Blood coagulates in uninjured blood vessels.
Reason (R) : Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant heparin. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : Prothrombinase enzyme act as antiheparin. [2010]
Reason : Heparin prevent coagulation of blood in blood vessels

2-Assertion : Blood is coloured in the insects.
Reason : Insect blood has no role in O2 transport. [2012, 2013]

3-Assertion : When there is a fall in the blood pressure due to loss of blood volume, this is compensated by vasoconstriction of veins.
Reason : Veins hold the extra amount of blood which can be shifted to the arteries as required. [2010, 2015]

4-Assertion : Lub is a heart sound which is produced during each cardiac cycle.
Reason : It is associated with the closure of the tricusp and bicuspid valves. [2016]

CHAPTER-19: Excretory Products and their Elimination

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Podocytes occur in [1998]
(a) large intestine
(b) glomerulus of kidney
(c) wall of capillaries
(d) neck region

The end product of ornithine cycle is [1999]
(a) urea (b) uric acid
(b) NH3 (d) CO2

Reabsorption in tubules of nephrons occurs by [2000]
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion
(c) active transport (d) both (b) & (c)

Toxic substances are detoxified in human body in [2001]
(a) kidney (b) lungs
(c) liver (d) stomach

In which of the following minimum content of urea is present ? [2012]
(a) Hepatic portal vein
(b) Portal vein
(c) Renal vein
(d) Vena cava

Duct of Bellini is concerned with [2012]
(a) Filtration of urine
(b) Purification of urine
(c) Conduction of urine
(d) All the above

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? [2013]
(a) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(b) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(c) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
(d) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules

If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following is to be expected [2015]
(a) there will be no urine formation
(b) there will be hardly any change in the
quality and quantity of urine formed
(c) the urine will be more concentrated
(d) the urine will be more dilute.

Which blood vessel in mammals would normally carry the largest amount of urea? [2016]
(a) Dorsal aorta (b) Hepatic vein
(c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Renal vein

In ornithine cycle, enzyme arginase breaks down arginine into [2016]
(a) Citrulline and ammonia
(b) Ornithine and ammonia
(c) Ornithine and urea
(d) Citrulline and urea.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose an one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : During physiology of excretion, deamination does not take place in liver.
Reason : Deamination is a process to make use of excess of amino acids which cannot be incorporated into protoplasm. [2001]

2-Assertion : Secreting hypotonic urine is effective in reducing urinary loss of water.
Reason : Hypotonic urine is more concentrated and higher in osmotic pressure than the blood. [2007]

3-Assertion : Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and is important in th control of sodium and potassium ion concentration in mammals.
Reason : It upgrades sodium ion concentration in the ECF by promoting reabsorption of sodium ions from renal tubules and excretion of potassium ions in urine. [2007]

Directions for (Qs.1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion :Ultrafiltration takes place in presence of effective filtration pressure.
Reason : In ultrafiltration process, blood is filtered in Bowman’s capsule, filtered fluid contain protein & blood corpuscles also. [2010]

2-Assertion : In vertebrates, the liver is also referred as an accessory excretory organ.
Reason : Liver helps kidneys in the secretion of urine. [2012]

3-Assertion : Main constituent of human urine is ammonia.
Reason : If human urine is allowed to stand for some time, it smells strongly of ammonia. [2013]

4-Assertion : Hemodialysis can save and prolong the life of uremic patients.
Reason : Waste products like urea can be removed from the blood by the process of hemodialysis. [2014]

5-Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, whereas in ascending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypotonic.
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to sodium, while ascending limb is impermeable to water. [2016]

CHAPTER-20: Locomotion and Movement

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Cranium of human contains [2000]
(a) 12 bones (b) 8 bones
(c) 14 bones (d) 20 bones

Which of the following is made up of a single bone in mammal ? [2001]
(a) Dentary (b) Hyoid
(c) Upper jaw (d) All of these

Sella turcica is found [2001]
(a) near pituitary (b) in bone
(c) in joints (d) near thyroid

Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone? [2003]
(a) Pelvis (b) Patella
(c) Pterygoid (d) Pectoral girdle

Two of the body parts which do not appear in MRI may be [2005]
(a) molar teeth and eye lens
(b) scapula and canines
(c) ligaments and ribs
(d) tendons and premolars

Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labelling. Two of the wrongly labelled
bones are [2005]

(a) tibia and tarsals
(b) femur and fibula
(c) fibula and phalanges
(d) tarsals and femur

A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement?[2006]
(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia

The shoulder blade is made of [2007]
(a) clavicle (b) humerus
(c) ilium (d) scapula

The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work, is caused by [2010]
(a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
(c) the depletion of glucose
(d) the accumulation of lactic acid

Sesamoid bone is derived from- [2012]
(a) Cartilage (b) Areolar tissue
(c) Tendon (d) Ligament

Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system: [2014]
Type of joint_____________ Example
(a) Cartilaginous joint _____between frontal and parietal
(b) Pivot joint___________ between third and fourth cervical
(c) Hinge joint __________between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Gliding joint_________ between carpals

Wish bone in birds is formed from the bones of [2016]
(a) Shoulder girdle (b) Hip girdle
(c) Keeled sternum (d) Skull bones

The given figure represents the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B in the figure represents? [2017]

(a) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming cross bridge.
(b) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes shape to pull actin.
(c) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head. The cross bridge detaches.
(d) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin cocks into its high energy conformation.T

Directions for (Qs. 1) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions [1998]

Directions for (Qs.15-19) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

1-Assertion : Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints.
Reason : Synovial fluid is present here. [2012]

2-Assertion : Intercalated discs are important regions of cardiac muscle cells.
Reason : Intercalated discs function as boosters for muscle contraction waves. [2012]

3-Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful.
Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint.

4-Assertion : The phase of muscle contraction occurs when myosin binds and releases actin.
Reason : Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the peripheral nervous system via motor neuron.

5-Assertion : Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.
Reason :Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage lead to this. [2006, 2017]

CHAPTER-21: Neural Control and Coordination

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

The vagus nerve is the cranial nerve numbering [1997]
(a) 10th (b) 9th
(c) 5th (d) 8th

Sensation of stomach pain is due to [1998]
(a) interoceptors (b) exteroceptors
(c) teloreceptors (d) all of these

Which is the example of conditioned reflex ?[1999]
(a) Eyes closed when anything enter into it.
(b) Hand took up when piercing with needle.
(c) Salivation in a hungry dog in response to ringing of a bell.
(d) Digestion food goes forward in alimentary canal.

Otorhinolaryngology is the study of [1999]
(a) brain cells
(b) bird anatomy
(c) locomotary organs
(d) ENT

If frog’s brain is crushed, even then its leg moves on pinpointing . It is called [2001]
(a) simple reflex
(b) conditional reflex
(c) neurotransmitter function
(d) autonomic nerve conditions

Which of the following is not a mental disorder? [2001]
(a) Epilepsy (b) Neurosis
(c) Psychosis (d) Plague

The 5th cranial nerve of frog is called [1998, 2001]
(a) optic nerve (b) vagus nerve
(c) trigeminal nerve (d) olfactory nerve

The crystal of lead zirconate is a key component of [2003]
(a) electroencephalography
(b) electrocardiography
(c) magnetoencephalography
(d) sonography

Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans may lead to [2003]
(a) hoarse voice
(b) peptic ulcers
(c) efficient digestion of proteins
(d) irregular contraction of diaphragm

A person is wearing spectacles with concave lenses for correcting vision. While not using the glasses, the image of a distant object in his case will be formed [2003]
(a) on the blind spot
(b) behind the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the yellow spot

Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that[2004]
(a) nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath.
(b) sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre.
(c) neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings.
(d) neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites.

Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option: [2006]

(a) Cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina.
(b) Cell A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis.
(c) Cell B is concerned with colour vision in bright light.
(d) Cell A is sensitive to low light intensities.

A person, who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others, is suffering from
(a) borderline personality disorder (BPD) [2006]
(b) mood disorder
(c) addictive disorder
(d) schizophrenia

Which of the following is an eye disease?
(a) hepatitis (b) measles
(c) glaucoma (d) bronchitis

Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (1-4). [2006]
Which one feature is correctly described?

Hearing impairment affects which part of brain? [2007]
(a) Frontal lobe (b) Parietal lobe
(c) Temporal lobe (d) Cerebellum

The black pigment in the eye which reduces the internal reflection is located in [2007]
(a) retina (b) iris
(c) cornea (d) sclerotic

Bipolar nerve cells are present in [2012]
(a) Skin tactile corpuscles
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Retina of eye
(d) All the above

Fenestra ovalis is the opening of [2012]
(a) Cranium (b) Tympanum
(c) Tympanic cavity (d) Brain

Multipolar nerve cells are present in [2012]
(a) Cochlea
(b) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
(c) Retina of eye
(d) Brain

Neurons receive signals through their _ and send signals to other neurons through their _. [2013]
(a) dendrites … receptors
(b) end feet … cell bodies and dendrites
(c) cell bodies and dendrites … axons
(d) transmitter vesicles … axons

Which of the following ions are required for nerve conduction ? [2016]
(a) Ca++, Na+ and K+ (b) Ca++ and Mg++
(c) Mg++ and K+ (d) Na+ and K+

The following diagram indicates the reflex arc. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Choose the correct option[2016]

(a) A = sense organ; B = sensory nerve; C = dorsal horn; D = interneuron; E = ventral horn; F = motor nerve; G = effector
(b) A = sense organ; B = sensory nerve; C = ventral horn; D = interneuron; E = dorsal horn; F = motor nerve; G = effector
(c) A = effector; B = motor nerve; C = dorsal horn; D = interneuron; E = ventral horn; F = sensory nerve; G = effector
(d) A = effector; B = motor nerve; C = ventral horn; D = interneuron; E = dorsal horn; F = sensory nerve; G = sense organ.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions for (Qs. 1-3) : These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are
required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is correct.

1-Assertion : Transmission of nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by neurotransmitters.
Reason : Transmission across a synapse usually requires neurotransmitters because there is a small space, i.e., synaptic cleft, that separates one neuron from another. [1999]

2-Assertion : Tongue is a gustatoreceptor.
Reason : Receptors for gustatory sensations are located in taste buds. [2000]

3-Assertion : Astigmatism is due to uneven curvature of lens.
Reason : It is treated with cylindrical lenses. [2007]

Directions for (Qs. 1-5) : Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1-Assertion : The brain stem contains centres for controlling activities.
Reason : Brain stem is very sensitive. [2012]

2-Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters. Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the synaptic cleft. [2013]

3-Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential.
Reason: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ & K+, the neurons use electrical energy. [2002, 2015]

4-Assertion : The axonal membrane of the neuron is more permeable to sodium ion (Na+) and nearly impermeable to potassium (K+).
Reason : In a resting state neuron does not conduct any impulse. [2016]

5-Assertion : A cerebellum is related with skillful voluntary movement and involuntary activity like body balance, equilibrium, etc.
Reason : It is part of hind brain and it is situated behind the pons. [2010, 2017]

CHAPTER-22: Chemical Coordination and Integration

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS